Any objection that such a kingdom had no actual existence, but was only
invented to heighten the hyperbole of laudation of Penelope’s fame,
“which goes up to the wide heaven, as doth the fame of a blameless
king,” concerns us not at all, for the kingdom whether actual or
imaginary is held up as worthy of all praise and admiration. In this
our Fish and so our Fishermen have attained some, if small, constituent
status.
The period of such attainment cannot be dated, but how and why the
status arrived I now try to trace.
Authorities differ widely as to whether the (so-called) Greeks, on
leaving Central Asia or whatever their _Urheimat_, established their
first lodgements in Europe or Asia, in Greece Proper or Asia Minor. E.
Curtius maintained that the Ionians at any rate, if not all the Greeks,
founded their earliest settlements on the coast of Asia Minor, and only
later crossed to Greece.
This view finds little favour among most Homeric scholars of the
present day,[139] who reverse the theory. They place the first
settlement of the immigrant Greeks in European Greece, whence by
peaceable permeation or otherwise they subsequently colonised the
coasts of Asia Minor and the Islands.
According to Professor K. Schneider[140] the Greeks, when swarming from
their original Aryan hive and establishing themselves on the coast of
Asia Minor and in the Islands of the Ægean Sea, carried with them and
for a long time closely preserved their original habits of life and
livelihood. Descended from generations of inland dwellers, eaters of
the flesh of wild animals, of sheep, etc., they were ignorant of marine
fish as a food. Only when the population increased more rapidly than
the crops, did they, profiting by their contact with the Phœnicians,
to whom in seamanship[141] and, according to some writers, in art[142]
they owed much, begin to realise and utilise the wealth of the harvest
to be won from the adjacent seas.[143]
Fishing, followed at first mainly by the very poor to procure a food in
low esteem, gradually found itself.
In the _Iliad_ and _Odyssey_ no fish appear at banquets or in the
houses of the well-to-do: only in connection with the poorest or
starving do they obtain mention.
Meleager of Gadara accounted for this fact—previously noted by
Aristotle—by the suggestion that Homer represented his characters as
abstaining from fish, because as a Syrian by descent he himself was a
total abstainer. The curious omission of fish has been held to indicate
that Homer either lived before the adoption of fish as food, or, if
not, that the social conditions and habits of diet which he delineates
are those of generations before such transition.[144]
The decision, if one be possible, lies for Homeric scholars, and not
for a mere seeker after piscatoriana. Even to such an one, however, two
alternatives seem clear.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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