Villainage in England: Essays in English Mediaeval HistoryVinogradoff, Paul
History
Villainage in England: Essays in English Mediaeval History
Vinogradoff, Paul
Villeinage -- England -- History -- To 1500
lord[84], and it was difficult to prevent him from doing so, although
some attempts were made by the courts even in this case to distinguish
whether a person had been in possession as a dependant or not. But there
was absolutely nothing to prevent a villain from acting in every respect
like a free man if he was so minded and was not interrupted by his lord.
There was no need of any accessory action to make his acts complete and
legal[85]. Again we come to an anomaly: the slave is free against
everybody but his lord.
[Convention with the lord.]
Even against his lord the bondman had some standing ground for a civil
action. It has rightly been maintained, that he could implead his master
in consequence of an agreement with him. The assertion is not quite easy
to prove however, and has been put forward too sweepingly[86]. At first
sight it seems even that the old law books, i.e. those of Bracton and
his followers, teach the opposite doctrine. They deal almost exclusively
with the case of a feoffment made by the lord to a villain and his
heirs, and give the feoffee an action only on the ground of implied
manumission. The feoffor enfranchises his serf indirectly, even if he
does not say so in as many words, because he has spoken of the feoffee's
heirs, and the villain has no other heirs besides the lord[87]. The
action eventually proceeds in this case, because it is brought not by a
serf but by a freed man. One difficult passage in Bracton points another
way; it is printed in a foot-note[88]. There can be no doubt, that in
it Bracton is speaking of a covenant made by the lord not with a free
man or a freed man, but with a villain. This comes out strongly when it
is said, that the lord, and not the villain, has the assize against
intruders, and when the author puts the main question--is the feoffor
bound to hold the covenant or not? The whole drift of the quotation can
be understood only on the fundamental assumption that we have lord and
villain before us. But there are four words which militate against this
obvious explanation; the words '_sibi et heredibus suis_.' We know what
their meaning is--they imply enfranchisement and a freehold estate of
inheritance. They involve a hopeless contradiction to the doctrine
previously stated, a doctrine which might be further supported by
references to Britton, Fleta and Bracton himself[89]. In short, if we
accept them, we can hardly get out of confusion. Were our text of
Bracton much more definitely and satisfactorily settled than it is[90],
one would still feel tempted to strike them out; as it is we have a text
studded with interpolations and errors, and it seems quite certain that
'sibi et heredibus suis' has got into it simply because the compositor
of Tottell's edition repeated it from the conclusion of the sentence
immediately preceding, and so mixed up two cases, which were to be
distinguished by this very qualification. The four words are missing in
all the MSS.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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