[Footnote 3: Ezek. xviii. 13; Jer. xv. 10; Ps. xiv. 5, cix. 11, cxii. 5; Prov. xxviii. 8; Hes. xviii. 8; 2 Esd. v. I _et seq._] The general attitude of the Jews towards usury cannot be better explained than by quoting Dr. Cleary's final conclusion on the subject: 'It appears therefore that in the Old Testament usury was universally prohibited between Israelite and Israelite, whilst it was permitted between Israelite and Gentile. Furthermore, it seems impossible to decide what was the nature of the obligations imposed--whether the prohibition supposed and ratified an already existing universal obligation, in charity or justice, or merely imposed a new obligation in obedience, binding the consciences of men for economic or political reasons. So, too, it seems impossible to decide absolutely whether the decrees were intended to possess eternal validity; the probabilities, however, seem to favour very strongly the view that they were intended as mere economic regulations suited to the circumstances of the time. This does not, of course, decide the other question, whether, apart from such positive regulations, there already existed an obligation arising from the natural law; nor would the passing of the positive law into desuetude affect the existence of the other obligation.'[1] [Footnote 1: _Op. cit._, pp. 17-18.] Before we pass from the consideration of the Old Testament to that of the New, we may mention that the taking of interest by Mohammedans is forbidden in the Koran.[2] [Footnote 2: ii. 30. This prohibition is universally evaded. (Roscher, _Political Economy_, s. 90.)] § 3. _Usury in the First Twelve Centuries of Christianity_.