An introduction to the theory of value : $b On the lines of Menger, Weiser, and Böhm-BawerkSmart, William
General
An introduction to the theory of value : $b On the lines of Menger, Weiser, and Böhm-Bawerk
Smart, William
Austrian school of economics; Value
Leaving out complementary factors, which do not disturb the action of
the law and would complicate our statement, suppose that iron is the
sole productive good in the making of those various iron wares we find
selling at different prices in the ironmongers’ shops. The general
opinion is that it is the price of iron—disregarding other factors—that
determines the price of iron wares, from nails to kitchen ranges. And
what we have to prove is that the conduction of value really runs in
the opposite direction—from nails and ranges to raw iron.
Suppose for the moment that the prices obtainable for these products
range from 40/ to 48/ for a given unit. That is to say: the ton of
iron, when manufactured into, say, nails fetches 40/, when manufactured
into other articles, it fetches respectively 42/, 44/, 46/, 48/. These
prices are the result of the condition of the market at the moment. The
manufacturers of these products—we shall call them respectively A, B,
C, D, and E—represent the demand for iron, and the price they will be
able to offer for iron depends on the prices obtained by these articles.
On the other hand, the supply of raw iron held in store will naturally
pass to the most capable buyers—the most capable manufacturers of iron
wares—at the valuation of the last buyer. Suppose the stocks of iron
are sufficient to meet the demand of E, D, and C, the valuation of C,
the last buyer, will determine the price of iron at 44/ per ton. So far
all has gone to show that it is the iron wares—through the marginal
product—which determine the price of the productive good, iron.
But now we come to a feature which gives countenance to the old theory.
So long as the prices of iron wares—always assuming that iron is the
sole productive group employed in the manufacture—range from 40/ to
48/, while the market price of iron stands at 44/, it is a proof that
competition has not done its work. What naturally follows? Producers D
and E who are getting respectively 2/ and 4/ advantage over costs will
increase the output of their particular iron wares till over-supply
brings down the price to 44/. On the other hand, producers A and B,
who get respectively 4/ and 2/ less than cost, will curtail their
production, till decrease of supply raises their prices to 44/. Thus,
from above and from below, competition is always levelling prices to
the cost of production. Here it is quite true that cost of production
imposes itself on product. What is forgotten is that the cost of
production is itself first determined by the marginal product.
There is, however, a stronger argument for the old theory. Stocks of
iron are not a fixed quantity. If new and productive mines are opened,
or new processes discovered, the supply of iron increases, and prices
of all iron products will certainly fall. Does this not prove that the
value of iron wares is regulated by the cost of producing iron?
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
Reviews
Reviews
No reviews yet
Be the first to share your thoughts on this work.
Elsewhere in the archive
Join the Discussion
Join the discussion
Sign in to leave a comment or review.
Sign InorCreate an account