We come to the question passed over. Can such terms as "visual," "sensory," be neglected without modifying the force of the question--that is, without affecting the implications which give it the force of a problem? Can we "know that objects of sense, or very similar objects, exist at times when we are not perceiving them? Secondly, if this cannot be known, can we know that other objects, inferable from objects of sense but not necessarily resembling them, exist either when we are perceiving the objects of sense or at any other time" (p. 75)? I think a little reflection will make it clear that without the limitation of the term "perceiving" by the term "sense" no _problem_ as to existence _at other times_ can possibly arise. For neither (_a_) reference to time nor (_b_) limitation to a particular time is given either in the fact of existence of color or of perceiving color. Mr. Russell, for example, makes allusion to "a patch of color which is momentarily seen" (p. 76). This is the sort of thing that may pass without challenge in the common-sense world, but hardly in an analysis which professes to call that world in question. Mr. Russell makes the allusion in connection with discriminating between sensation as signifying "the mental event of our being aware" and the sensation as object of which we are aware--the sense object. He can hardly be guilty, then, in the immediate context, of proceeding to identify the momentariness of the event with the momentariness of the object. There must be some grounds for assuming the temporal quality of the object--and that "immediateness" belongs to it in any other way than as an object of immediate seeing. What are these grounds?