Grace, Actual and Habitual: A Dogmatic TreatisePohle, Joseph
Religion
Grace, Actual and Habitual: A Dogmatic Treatise
Pohle, Joseph
Grace (Theology)
a) Sufficient grace, as conceived by the Thomists, is not truly sufficient
to enable a man to perform a salutary act, because _ex vi notionis_ it
confers merely the power to act, postulating for the act itself a
substantially new grace (_gratia efficax_). A grace which requires to be
entitatively supplemented by another, in order to enable a man to perform
a salutary act, is clearly not sufficient for the performance of that act.
“To be truly sufficient for something” and “to require to be complemented
by something else” are mutually exclusive notions, and hence “sufficient
grace” as conceived by Thomists is in reality insufficient.
Many subtle explanations have been devised to obviate this difficulty.
Billuart and nearly all the later Thomists say that if any one who has
received sufficient grace (in the Thomistic sense of the term) is denied
the _gratia efficax_, it must be attributed to a sinful resistance of the
will.(724) But this explanation is incompatible with the Thomistic
teaching that together with the _gratia sufficiens_ there co-exists in the
soul of the sinner an irresistible and inevitable _praemotio physica_ to
the entity of sin, with which entity formal sin is inseparably bound
up.(725) If this be true, how can the will of man be held responsible so
long as God denies him the _gratia ab intrinseco efficax_?
Speaking in the abstract, the will may assume one of three distinct
attitudes toward sufficient grace. It may consent, it may resist, or it
may remain neutral. It cannot consent except with the aid of a
predetermining _gratia efficax_, to merit which is beyond its power. If it
withstands, it _eo ipso_ renders itself unworthy of the _gratia efficax_.
If it takes a neutral attitude, (which may in itself be a sinful act), and
awaits efficacious grace, of what use is sufficient grace?
To resist sufficient grace involves an abuse of liberty. Now, where does
the right use of liberty come in? If coöperation with sufficient grace
moves God to bestow the _gratia per se efficax_, as the Thomists contend,
then the right use of liberty must lie somewhere between the _gratia
sufficiens_ and the _gratia efficax per se_. But there is absolutely no
place for it in the Thomistic system. The right use of liberty for the
purpose of obtaining efficacious grace is attributable either to grace or
to unaided nature. To assert that it is the work of unaided nature would
lead to Semipelagianism. To hold that it is owing to grace would be moving
in a vicious circle, thus: “Because the will offers no resistance, it is
efficaciously moved to perform a salutary act; that it offers no sinful
resistance is owing to the fact that it is efficaciously moved to perform
a salutary act.”(726)
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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