the marginal utility and value would be lowered. Conversely if the costliness be increased, value will be raised. Under Crusoe conditions we are considering the relations of costliness, utility and value in the simplest of circumstances we can imagine. Even here the question arises, is it correct to affirm that costliness is _precisely coördinate_ with utility in determining value? To me it seems apparent that utility exercises a more direct and intimate control over value than cost, even in the simplified case now before us.[246] In the first place, value is still _derived_ solely from utility.[247] Cost influences value only by way of influencing the value-determining utility itself. Thus cost is more remote from value than is satisfaction or utility. Even in the case of goods valued according to their “effective utility,” that is, according to a foreign utility, there is no violation of the principle that value is derived solely from utility. Cost or costliness is never the source of value. No amount of cost endured for a good without utility will confer value upon it. There can be no discrepancy between utility (here we are speaking of the utility that is the counterpart of the satisfaction _conditioned_ upon the good, _i. e._, the marginal utility in the cases of goods divisible into increments) and value, whereas there may be between costliness and value. If anything prevents the supply of a good from being increased to the point of marginal equivalence of utility and costliness, then of course the value follows the utility and not the costliness. Costliness is thus not a more fundamental cause of value, but merely a more remote cause than utility, and in any event can influence value only by affecting the utility itself, by helping to determine supply.