But in the year 96, John says, “I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s day.”
Rev. 1:10. Now it is evident that this must be a day which the Lord had
set apart for himself, and which he claimed as his. This was all true in
the case of the seventh day, but was not in any respect true in that of
the first day. He could not therefore call the first day by this name,
for it was not such. But if the Spirit of God designed at this point to
create a new institution and to call a certain day the Lord’s day which
before had never been claimed by him as such, it was necessary that he
should specify that new day. He did not define the term, which proves
that he was not giving a sacred name to some new institution, but was
speaking of a well-known, divinely appointed day. But _after_ John’s
return from Patmos, he wrote his gospel,[441] and in that gospel he twice
had occasion to mention the first day of the week. Let us see whether he
adheres to the manner of the other sacred writers, or whether, when we
know he means the first day, he gives to it a sacred name.
John, A. D. 97. “The first day of the week cometh Mary Magdalene early.”
John 20:1. “Then the same day at evening, being the first day of the
week.” Verse 19.
These texts complete the Bible record of the first day of the week. They
furnish conclusive evidence that John did not receive new light in vision
at Patmos, bidding him call the first day of the week the Lord’s day, and
when taken with all the instances preceding, they constitute a complete
demonstration that the first day was not familiarly known as the Lord’s
day in John’s time, nor indeed known at all by that name then. Let us now
see whether Lord’s day as a title for the first day can be traced back to
John by means of the writings of the fathers.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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