I now repeat the text: "Elect ... according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit." What I have said harmonizes with this, because the qualified fitness of the _elect_ is through sanctification of the Spirit. Our Lord prays for all in these words: "Father, sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth." It is through the truth that men are sanctified, and the sanctified the world over and through all time are God's elect, according to his foreknowledge or foreordination, because no others can be. The all-in-all of this great subject resolves itself into the simple fact that men do not come into covenant union with God unto salvation because God elected and foreordained it to be so in their special behalf as individuals, unconditionally chosen beforehand, whilst others no worse than they are left to go to destruction; but they are elected _according to God's foreordination_ because they have come into covenant union with him unto salvation; and have, therefore, the fitness to be worthy of being so chosen or elected. Their election and foreordination are not the cause but the result of the fitness. It is foreordained that "of such is the kingdom of heaven," because it cannot consist of any other kind. But let us turn to Ezekiel's prophecy, 33:11, "As I live, saith the Lord God, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye, ... for why will ye die; O house of Israel?" If the house of Israel was of the elect on an unconditional basis of salvation, they surely would return at some time, and why such concern? If not, all the calling after them that could be done would not fetch them back, because they were not of the elect. This is exactly where the doctrine of unconditional election leads. Again, 2 Peter 3:9, God is "not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance." If God is not willing that any should perish, why did he not make provision and save all? If it is possible for him to save some just because he chooses to do so without any conditions, why not save all? I know what the advocates of this doctrine which I am combatting teach: they say God makes his elect willing to repent and turn to him in the day of his power. I ask, If he is not willing that any should perish, why does he not save all? If he wills that all should come to repentance, why does he not give repentance to all and remission of sins? I mention these things merely to show the contradictions and confusion involved in the doctrine of unconditional elections.