I will now state the whole case in another way. When we regard the facts
of volition from the stand-point of psychology, the only theory of them
which is open to us is, as we have before seen, that of determinism.
Moreover, within these limits that theory is perfectly true. Psychology,
as such, cannot recognize any principle more ultimate than natural
causation, seeing that, like any other of her sisters in the family of
sciences, her whole work and duty are confined to the investigation of
this principle. But, just as in the case of all the other sciences, when
her investigations have been pushed to the point where they encounter
the problem of explaining this principle itself, her investigations
must necessarily cease; this principle is for all the sciences the
ultimate datum, behind which they cannot go without ceasing to be
sciences. But it does not follow that because the area of science is
limited by that of causation, therefore we are precluded from asking any
questions as to the nature of this ultimate datum. Of course any
questions which we may thus ask cannot possibly be answered by science;
they are questions of philosophy, in the consideration of which science,
from her very nature and essential limitation of her office, can have no
voice. Now, if on taking up the principle of causation where this is
left by science--viz. as the ultimate or unanalyzable _datum_ of
experience, upon which all her investigations are founded, and by which
they are all limited--philosophy finds any reason to surmise that it is
resolvable into the principle of mind, philosophy is thus able to
suggest that any distinction between mental processes as determinate or
free, is really a meaningless distinction. For, according to this
suggestion, the issue is no longer as to whether these processes are
caused or uncaused; the very idea of cause has been abolished as one
which belongs only to that lower level of inquiry with which science, or
sensuous experience, is concerned. Here, no doubt, the question is a
thoroughly real one, and, as shown in previous chapters, can only be
answered in the way of determinism. But so soon as we ascend to the
philosophical theory of Monism, and so transcend the conditions of
sensuous experience, the question whether volitions are caused or
uncaused becomes, as I have said, a meaningless question, or a question
the terms of which are not correctly stated. If it be the case that all
causality is of a nature psychical, volition and causation are one and
the same thing, differing only in relation to our modes of apprehension.
It would therefore be equally meaningless to say that either is the
cause of the other--just as it would be equally meaningless to say that
neurosis is the cause of psychosis, or that psychosis is the cause of
neurosis. Or thus, if volition and causation are one and the same thing,
the only reason why they ever appear diverse is because the one is known
ontologically, while the other is known phenomenally.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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