I have endeavoured to think over your discussion, but not with much
success. You will have to lay down, I think, very clearly, what
foundation you argue from--four parts (which seems to me exceedingly
moderate on your part) of Europe being now at rest, with one part
undergoing movement. How it is, that from this you can argue that the
one part which is now moving will have rested since the commencement of
the Glacial period in the proportion of four to one, I do not pretend
to see with any clearness; but does not your argument rest on the
assumption that within a given period, say two or three million years,
the whole of Europe necessarily has to undergo movement? This may
be probable or not so, but it seems to me that you must explain the
foundation of your argument from space to time, which at first, to me
was very far from obvious. I can, of course, see that if you can make
out your argument satisfactorily to yourself and others it would be most
valuable. I can imagine some one saying that it is not fair to argue
that the great plains of Europe and the mountainous districts of
Scotland and Wales have been at all subjected to the same laws of
movement. Looking to the whole world, it has been my opinion, from the
very size of the continents and oceans, and especially from the enormous
ranges of so many mountain-chains (resulting from cracks which follow
from vast areas of elevation, as Hopkins argues (491/1. See "Report
on the Geological Theories of Elevation and Earthquakes." by William
Hopkins. "Brit. Assoc. Rep." 1847, pages 33-92; also the Anniversary
Address to the Geological Society by W. Hopkins in 1852 ("Quart. Journ.
Geol. Soc." Volume VIII.); in this Address, pages lxviii et seq.)
reference is made to the theory of elevation which rests on the
supposition "of the simultaneous action of an upheaving force at every
point of the area over which the phenomena of elevation preserve a
certain character of continuity...The elevated mass...becomes stretched,
and is ultimately torn and fissured in those directions in which
the tendency thus to tear is greatest...It is thus that the complex
phenomena of elevation become referable to a general and simple
mechanical cause...")) and from other reasons, it has been my opinion
that, as a general rule, very large portions of the world have been
simultaneously affected by elevation or subsidence. I can see that this
does not apply so strongly to broken Europe, any more than to the Malay
Archipelago. Yet, had I been asked, I should have said that probably
nearly the whole of Europe was subjected during the Glacial period
to periods of elevation and of subsidence. It does not seem to me so
certain that the kinds of partial movement which we now see going on
show us the kind of movement which Europe has been subjected to since
the commencement of the Glacial period. These notions are at least
possible, and would they not vitiate your argument? Do you not rest on
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
Reviews
Reviews
No reviews yet
Be the first to share your thoughts on this work.
Elsewhere in the archive
Join the Discussion
Join the discussion
Sign in to leave a comment or review.
Sign InorCreate an account