The natural mind of the ordinary man explains all by saying, “Henslowe
records no loans of money to Shakspere the actor, because he lent him no
money. He records no payments for plays to Shakespeare the author-actor,
because to Henslowe the actor sold no plays.” That is the whole
explanation of the Silence of Philip Henslowe. If Shakspere did sell a
play to Henslowe, why should that financier omit the fact from his
accounts? Suppose that the actor was illiterate as Baconians fervently
believe, and sold Bacon’s plays, what prevented him from selling a play
of Bacon’s (under his own name, as usual) to Henslowe? To obtain a
Baconian reply you must wander into conjecture, and imagine that Bacon
forbade the transaction. Then _why_ did he forbid it? Because he could
get a better price from Shakspere’s company? The same cause would
produce the same effect on Shakspere himself; whether he were the author,
or were Bacon’s, or any man’s go-between. On any score but that of
money, why was Henslowe good enough for Ben Jonson, Dekker, Heywood,
Middleton, and Webster, and not good enough for Bacon, who did not appear
in the matter at all, but was represented in it by the actor, Will? As a
gentleman and a man of the Court, Bacon would be as much discredited if
he were known to sell (for £6 on an average) his noble works to the Lord
Chamberlain’s Company, as if he sold them to Henslowe.
I know not whether the great lawyer, courtier, scholar, and philosopher
is supposed by Baconians to have given Will Shakspere a commission on his
sales of plays; or to have let him keep the whole sum in each case. I
know not whether the players paid Shakspere a sum down for his (or
Bacon’s) plays, or whether Will received a double share, or other, or any
share of the profits on them, as Henslowe did when he let a house to the
players. Nobody knows any of these things.
“If Shakspere the player had been a dramatist, surely Henslowe would have
employed him also, like the others, in that behalf.” {159a} Henslowe
would, if he could have got the “copy” cheap enough. Was any one of “the
others,” the playwrights, a player, holding a share in his company? If
not, the fact makes an essential difference, for Shakspere _was_ a
shareholder. Collier, in his preface to Henslowe’s so-called “Diary,”
mentions a playwright who was bound to scribble for Henslowe only (Henry
Porter), and another, Chettle, who was bound to write only for the
company protected by the Earl of Nottingham. {159b} Modern publishers
and managers sometimes make the same terms with novelists and
playwrights.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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