Sources of the Synoptic GospelsPatton, Carl S. (Carl Safford)
Religion
Sources of the Synoptic Gospels
Patton, Carl S. (Carl Safford)
Bible. Gospels -- Criticism, interpretation, etc.
Mk iii, 7, 8 (Mt iv, 25; Lk vi, 17): "Mark gives in order and by name six
districts from which the multitudes came. Matthew mentions all save the
last, Tyre and Sidon. Luke omits the first, fourth, and fifth, but does
mention the last, Tyre and Sidon." The changes in these lists seem to be
more various than Mr. Smith suggests. Matthew adds Decapolis and omits
Idumaea.[73] The thing hard to account for in Luke's list is his omission
of Galilee, not his inclusion of Tyre and Sidon. These latter regions
would interest him especially, with his universalistic tendency; we should
hardly have been surprised to find him adding them if he had not found
them in Mark. A simple explanation of the changes made by both Matthew and
Luke may perhaps be seen in Matthew's Judaistic tendency, which led him to
omit Tyre and Sidon, and in Luke's universalistic tendency which made him
include them. To make Mr. Smith's argument hold in this case, Luke should
certainly have come much closer than he does, to preserving the parts
which Matthew rejects, and rejecting the parts which he retains. It
appears that Luke has no great knowledge of nor interest in Palestinian
geography, but Tyre and Sidon suited his purpose.
Mk x, 29 (Mt xix, 29; Lk xviii, 29): Mark here hasἕνεκεν ἐμοῦ καὶ ἕνεκεν
τοῦ εὐαγγελίου. Matthew has ἕνεκα τοῦ ἐμοῦ ὀνόματος, and Luke εἵνεκεν τῆς
βασιλείας τοῦ θεοῦ. But Matthew's "my name's sake" is not the same as
Mark's "my sake," and seems to bespeak Matthew's later date of writing.
Luke's "for the sake of the kingdom of God" has a more primitive sound
than the latter part of Mark's phrase. It probably represents the original
words of Jesus which Matthew has everywhere changed into the "kingdom of
heaven." Since all the passages in Mark where the word εὐαγγέλιον occurs
are on independent grounds suspected of being later additions, it seems
probable that the reading of Mark which Matthew and Luke had before them
here was merely ἕνεκεν ἐμοῦ, that both Matthew and Luke changed this
phrase as they would, and that the ἕνεκεν τοῦ εὐαγγελίου of Mark is later
than either Matthew or Luke. At all events, it does not seem to be true in
this instance that Matthew takes the first part of Mark's phrase and Luke
the last.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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