This interpretation seemed most conducive to the power of the husband,
and, therefore, probably had the most advocates; and it is said that the
Jewish rulers so suffered it to be understood, and that even Moses, as a
man, suffered it; noticing that where the wife became greatly _hated_ by
the husband, she was extremely liable to abuse, unless this law was so
explained as to permit a divorce. The Jews kept up the dispute about
this matter down to the days of our Saviour; when the Pharisees, with
the view to place before him a difficult question, and one that might
entangle him, if answered adverse to the popular idea, presented it to
him, as related in _Matt._ xix. He promptly decides the question,
whereupon they say—
“Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put
her away? He saith unto them, Moses, because of the hardness of your
hearts, suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it
was not so. And I say unto you, Whoever shall put away his wife, except
it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery; and
whoever marrieth her that is put away, doth commit adultery.” _Matt._
xix. 7, 8, 9.
Mark describes this interview thus: “And the Pharisees came to him, and
asked him, saying, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife, tempting
him? And he answered and said unto them, What did Moses command you? And
they said, Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her
away. Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart
he wrote you this precept: but from the beginning of the creation, God
made them male and female.” _Mark_ x. 2–6.
But do these answers, either way, favour polygamy? Is it not clear that
the law was in opposition to it?
It is true, the Jews, corrupted by the neighbouring nations who fell
into it, practised the habit to a great extent; and so they did idolatry
and many other sins. But was _idolatry allowed to the Israelites_?
What truth can there be in the assertion that they were _allowed_ a
thing, in the practice of which they had to trample their laws under
foot? And, under the statement of the facts, what truth is there in the
assertion that “polygamy was licensed in the age of the apostles?”
If such was “the practice of the holiest men,” it proves nothing except
that the holiest men were in the practice of breaking the law.
It is true that a looseness of adjudication on the subject of divorce
grew up, perhaps even from the time of Moses, among the Jews, on account
of the dispute about the interpretation of the law. But upon the
supposition that the law was correctly interpreted by those who
advocated the greatest laxity, which Jesus Christ sufficiently
condemned, yet there is found nothing favouring polygamy in it; for even
the loosest interpretation supposed a divorce necessary. The dispute was
not about polygamy; but about what predicates rendered a divorce legal.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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