We believe with Scholten that neither is dependent on the other, but
that both adopted a formula in use in the early Church against various
heresies,3 the superficial coincidence of which is without any weight
as evidence for the use of either Epistle by the writer of the other.
Moreover, it is clear that the writers refer to different classes of
heretics. Polycarp attacks the Docetæ who deny that Jesus Christ has
come in the flesh, that is with a human body of flesh and blood; whilst
the Epistle of John is directed against those who deny that Jesus who
has come in the flesh is the
{268}
Christ the Son of God.(1) Volkmar points out that in Polycarp the word
"Antichrist" is made a proper name, whilst in the Epistle the expression
used is the abstract "Spirit of Antichrist." Polycarp in fact says that
whoever denies the flesh of Christ is no Christian but Antichrist, and
Volkmar finds this direct assertion more original than the assertion of
the Epistle; "Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in
the flesh is of God,"(2) &c. In any case it seems to us clear that in
both writings we have only the independent enunciation, with decided
difference of language and sense, of a formula current in the Church,
and that neither writer can be held to have originated the condemnation,
in these words, of heresies which the Church had begun vehemently to
oppose, and which were merely an application of ideas already well
known, as we see from the expression of the Epistle in reference to the
"Spirit of Antichrist, of which ye have heard that it cometh."
Whether this phrase be an allusion to the Apocalypse xiii., or to 2
Thessalonians ii., or to traditions current in the Church, we need not
inquire; it is sufficient that the Epistle of John avowedly applies a
prophecy regarding Antichrist already known amongst Christians, which
was equally open to the other writer and probably familiar in the
Church. This cannot under any circumstances be admitted as evidence of
weight for the use of the 1st Epistle of John. There is no testimony
whatever of the existence of the Epistles ascribed to John previous to
this date, and that fact would have to
{269}
be established on sure grounds before the argument we are considering
can have any value.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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