language wherein we were born?" &c. Did all the multitude say this?
Or is not this the writer ascribing, according to his view, probable
sentiments to them? How again did they know that the hundred and twenty
or more brethren were Galilaean? Further on, the writer adds more of
the same kind, v. 12, 13: "And they were all amazed and were in doubt,
saying one to another: What may this mean? But others mocking said, They
are full of sweet wine." Is it not a strange manner of accounting
for such a phenomenon as (v. 11) hearing people speaking in their own
tongues the great works of God to suppose that they are drunken? People
speaking with tongues, in Paul's sense (1 Cor. xiv. 23, 24, 33), and
creating an unintelligible tumult, might well lead strangers to say
that they were either mad or drunken, but the praise of God in foreign
language, understood by so many, could not convey such an impression.
Peter does not, in explanation, simply state that they are speaking
foreign languages which have just been supernaturally imparted to them,
but argues (v. 15) that "these are not drunken, as ye suppose, for it is
the third hour of the day,"--too early to be "full of sweet wine," and
proceeds to assert that the phenomenon is, on the contrary, a fulfilment
of a prophecy of Joel in which, although the pouring out of God's Spirit
upon all flesh is promised "in the last days," and as a result that:
"your sons and your daughters shall prophesy and your young men shall
see visions and your old men shall dream dreams," not a single word
is said of any gift of "tongues," foreign or otherwise. The miraculous
phenomenon in question is not mentioned in the prophecy of which it
is supposed to be the accomplishment. It does not much help matters to
argue that the miracle, although not for future use, was intended as a
{376}
sign. We shall see what Paul says regarding [------] as a sign, but we
may here merely point out that the effect produced in the Corinthian
Church is rather an impression of madness, whilst here it leads to a
mocking accusation of drunkenness. The conversion of the 3,000 is by no
means referred to the speaking with tongues, but simply to the speech
of Peter (ii. 37L 41). From every point of view, there is no cohesion
between the different parts of the narrative; it is devoid of
verisimilitude. It is not surprising that so many critics of all shades
of opinion recognize unhistorical elements in the narrative in Acts,(1)
not to use a stronger term. To allow such an account to influence our
interpretation of Paul's statements regarding the gift of tongues is
quite out of the question; and no one who appreciates the nature of the
case and who carefully examines the narrative of the unknown writer can,
we think, hesitate to reject his theory of a supernatural bestowal of
power to speak foreign languages, before unknown.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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