If a man goes through the form of making a contract with A
through B as A's agent, and B is not in fact the agent of A,
there is no contract, because there is only one party. The
promise offered to A has not been accepted by him, and no
consideration has moved from him. In such a case, although there
is generally mistake on one side and fraud on the other, it is
very clear that no special [309] doctrine need be resorted to,
because the primary elements of a contract explained in the last
Lecture are not yet present.
Take next a different case. The defendant agreed to buy, and the
plaintiff agreed to sell, a cargo of cotton, "to arrive ex
Peerless from Bombay." There were two such vessels sailing from
Bombay, one in October, the other in December. The plaintiff
meant the latter, the defendant the former. It was held that the
defendant was not bound to accept the cotton. /1/ It is commonly
said that such a contract is void, because of mutual mistake as
to the subject-matter, and because therefore the parties did not
consent to the same thing. But this way of putting it seems to me
misleading. The law has nothing to do with the actual state of
the parties' minds. In contract, as elsewhere, it must go by
externals, and judge parties by their conduct. If there had been
but one "Peerless," and the defendant had said "Peerless" by
mistake, meaning "Peri," he would have been bound. The true
ground of the decision was not that each party meant a different
thing from the other, as is implied by the explanation which has
been mentioned, but that each said a different thing. The
plaintiff offered one thing, the defendant expressed his assent
to another.
A proper name, when used in business or in pleading, /2/ means
one individual thing, and no other, as every one knows, and
therefore one to whom such a name is used must find out at his
peril what the object designated is. If there are no
circumstances which make the use deceptive on either side, each
is entitled to insist on the [310] meaning favorable to him for
the word as used by him, and neither is entitled to insist on
that meaning for the word as used by the other. So far from
mistake having been the ground of decision, as mistake, its only
bearing, as it seems to me, was to establish that neither party
knew that he was understood by the other to use the word
"Peerless "in the sense which the latter gave to it. In that
event there would perhaps have been a binding contract, because,
if a man uses a word to which he knows the other party attaches,
and understands him to attach, a certain meaning, he may be held
to that meaning, and not be allowed to give it any other. /1/
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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