The Expositor's Bible: The General Epistles of St. James and St. JudePlummer, Alfred
Religion
The Expositor's Bible: The General Epistles of St. James and St. Jude
Plummer, Alfred
Bible. James -- Commentaries; Bible. Jude -- Commentaries
The Greek text of the opening verse exhibits a great variety of
readings, and one may suspect with Westcott and Hort that there has
been some primitive error, and that none of the existing readings are
correct. Of the points in which they differ from one another three
require notice:--
(1) In the words, "The Lord, having saved a people out of the land of
Egypt," the authorities vary between "the Lord" (with or without the
article), "God," and "Jesus." This last is far the best attested (AB,
the best cursives, the Vulgate, both Egyptian Versions, both Ethiopic,
the margin of the Armenian, and several Fathers); but the internal
evidence against it is immense. Nowhere else in Scripture is Jesus
said to be the Author of anything which took place before the
Incarnation. Had St. Jude written "Christ," we might have compared
"the rock was Christ" (1 Cor. x. 4). But the general adoption of the
reading "Jesus" shows how completely in Christian thought and language
the Man Jesus had become identified with the Eternal Son. If "Lord" be
correct (κύριος, without the article), it should be understood as
meaning Jehovah; and therefore "God," though not likely to be right as
the reading, is right as an interpretation. In the Latin translation
of the _Hypotyposeis_ of Clement of Alexandria we have these two
readings combined, _Dominus Deus_, and the Greek of Didymus has "Lord
Jesus" combined. Possibly all three readings are insertions, and
should be omitted, the true text being simply, "He who saved a people
out of the land of Egypt" (ὁ λαὸν ἐκ γῆς Αἰγύπτου σώσας).[116]
(2) In the words, "Though ye know all things once for all," some
authorities, which were followed by the translators of 1611, have
"this" for "all things," while one authority makes "all" to be
masculine instead of neuter (πάντας for πάντα). This last _may_ be
correct, for the final letter of the masculine might easily be lost
(especially in front of ὅτι); and in that case the meaning would be,
"though ye all know it," _i.e._, "know what I am going to point out."
There is a similar confusion of reading in 1 John ii. 20, where for
"Ye know all things" (οἴδατε πάντα) we should perhaps read, "Ye all
know" (οἴδατε πάντες). But here the masculine has too little support
to be adopted.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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