The Origin of Paul's ReligionMachen, J. Gresham (John Gresham)
Religion
The Origin of Paul's Religion
Machen, J. Gresham (John Gresham)
Bible. Epistles of Paul -- Theology; Paul, the Apostle, Saint
This argument has been met in various ways. According to Böhlig,
the passage does attest the application of the Aramaic title "Lord"
to Jesus, but that application, Böhlig believes, was made not in
Palestine but in Syria, not in Jerusalem but in Antioch. Syria,
indeed, with Cilicia, was, Böhlig insists, the special home of the
designation "Lord" as applied to the gods; the word "Baal," the
common Semitic title of the Syrian gods, means "Lord." And Böhlig
also points to the appearance of the title Mar along with Baal as a
title of divinity.[225]
[225] See Böhlig, "Zum Begriff Kyrios bei Paulus," in _Zeitschrift
für die neutestamentliche Wissenschaft_, xiv, 1913, pp. 23-37.
But why was the Semitic title retained in a Greek letter? In answer
to this question the bilingual condition of Syria may be appealed
to. But what particular sanctity could be attached to the Semitic
usage of Syria; why should Paul follow that usage in writing to a
church that was situated, not in the East, but in Greece proper? If,
on the other hand, the title "Mar" had been hallowed by the use of
the original disciples of Jesus, then the retention of the original
word without translation is perfectly natural.
Bousset now proposes another hypothesis.[226] The phrase
"Maranatha," he says, probably had nothing to do with Jesus; it
constitutes merely a formula of cursing like the "anathema" which
immediately precedes in 1 Cor. xvi. 22; the Maran (or Marana) refers
not to Jesus, but to God; the formula means, "Our Lord (God) shall
come and judge." But Bousset adduces no real evidence in support of
his explanation. No such formula of cursing seems to have been found
in Semitic sources. And why should Paul introduce such a Semitic
curse in writing to Corinth? The latest hypothesis of Bousset is
certainly a desperate expedient.
[226] Bousset, _Jesus der Herr_, 1916, pp. 22f. Compare _Kyrios
Christos_, 1913, p. 103.
"Marana" in 1 Cor. xvi. 22, therefore, certainly refers to Jesus,
and the strong presumption is that it was derived from Palestine.
The passage constitutes a real testimony to the use of the title
"Lord" as a designation of Jesus in the Palestinian Church.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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