Archaeology; Civilization, Ancient; Despotism; Greece -- History -- To 146 B.C.; Wealth
Again, the modern market for ancient coins has been largely restricted
to the coast. Because a coin was bought in Smyrna it does not follow
that it was found there. Of Sardis itself we still know too little to
speak with any assurance[682]. But the absence of finds, even at Sardis,
would not be decisive, since on Radet’s theory the Lydian coinage was
intended mainly for export, just as appears later to have been the case
with the silver tetradrachms of Smyrna, Myrina, Cyme, Lebedos, Magnesia
ad Maeandrum and Heraclea Ioniae, which are rarely found near their
place of origin, but with few exceptions are brought from different
parts of Syria[683].
More serious are the criticisms which do not altogether reject
Xenophanes, but explain him away by means of an interpretation of
Herodotus I. 94 first put forward by J. P. Six and later developed by
Babelon[684]. Six maintained that when Herodotus there states that the
Lydians were the first to strike and use coins of gold and silver, the
reference is to the concurrent issue of coins in the two separate
metals, or, in other words, to the coinage of Croesus (fig. 19. _b_),
who is generally admitted to have been the first to give up electrum in
favour of separate issues of gold and silver. But though it is true that
“coins of gold and silver” cannot mean “coins of electrum,” it by no
means follows that Herodotus is referring to the beginnings not of
coinage but of bimetallism. Babelon is right in insisting on the exact
words used by Herodotus, but in his interpretation of them he takes
perhaps too little account of the type of fact usually recorded by the
historian. Which is Herodotus more likely to give us? An inaccurate
version of a fundamental fact like the invention of coined money? Or a
pedantically accurate statement about an experiment in bimetallism that
was after all of quite secondary importance? Other things being equal we
should surely always prefer the interpretation which gives us the
former, and there is nothing to prevent us from doing so in the present
case. Assume that Xenophanes means what he says and that his statement
represents the prevalent tradition, and it is easy to see how Herodotus
came to use the precise words that he did.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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