The works of the Rev. John Wesley, Vol. 14 (of 32)Wesley, John
Religion
The works of the Rev. John Wesley, Vol. 14 (of 32)
Wesley, John
Methodist Church; Theology -- Early works to 1800; Theology -- History -- 18th century
Yet your Lordship’s mind is so full of this, that after repeating the
14th and 15th verses (_as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they
are the sons of God: for ye have not received the Spirit of bondage
again to fear: but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we
cry, Abba, Father!_) you add, “in the former part of this verse, the
apostle shews again the imperfection of the _Jewish_ law.” This also
calls for proof: otherwise, it will not be allowed, that he here speaks
of the _Jewish_ law at all: not, tho’ we grant that “the _Jews_ were
subject to the _fear_ of death, and lived in consequence of it, in
a state of _bondage_.” For are not all unbelievers, as ♦well as the
_Jews_, more or less, in the same _fear_ and _bondage_?
♦ “will” replaced with “well”
Your Lordship goes on, “In the latter part of the verse he shews the
superiority of the _Christian_ law to that of the _Jews_.” Page 18.
Where is the proof, my Lord? How does it appear, that he is speaking
either of the _Christian_ or _Jewish_ law, in those words, _Ye have
received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father_?
However you infer, “_Christians_ then are the adopted sons of God, in
contradistinction to the _Jews_, as the former had the gifts of the
Holy Ghost, which none of the latter had at that time: and _the body
of the Jews_ never had.” No, nor _the body of the Christians_ neither.
So that if this be a ♦proof against the _Jews_, it is the very same
against the _Christians_.
♦ “poof” replaced with “proof”
I must observe farther on the preceding words, 1. That your Lordship
begins here, to take the word _Christians_ in a new and peculiar
sense, for the whole body of the then Christian Church: 2. That it is
a bad inference, “as, or because they had the gifts of the Holy Ghost,
therefore they were the sons of God.” On the one hand, if they were the
children of God, it was not, because they had gifts. On the other, a
man may have all those gifts, and yet be a child of the devil.
9. I conceive, not only that your Lordship has _proved_ nothing
hitherto, not one point that has any relation to the question: but
that, strictly speaking, you have not _attempted to prove_ any thing,
having _taken for granted_ whatever came in your way. In the same
manner you proceed, “The apostle goes on, _The Spirit itself beareth
witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God_. This passage,
as it is connected with the preceding one, relates to the general
adoption of Christians, or their becoming the sons of God instead
of the _Jews_.”――“This passage relates”――How is that proved? By its
connexion with the preceding? In no wise, unless it be good arguing
to prove _Ignotum per ignotius_. It has not yet been proved, that the
preceeding passage itself has any relation to this matter.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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