In the genealogies of Matthew and Luke there are only three names
agreeing after that of David, viz., Salathiel, Zorobabel, and Joseph—all
the rest are utterly different. The attempts at explanation which have
been hitherto offered, in order to reconcile these genealogies, are
scarcely creditable to the intellects of the Christian apologists. They
allege that “Joseph, who by nature was the son of Jacob, in the account
of the law was the son of Heli. For Heli and Jacob were brothers by the
same mother, and Heli, who was the elder, dying without issue, Jacob, as
the law directed, married his widow; in consequence of such marriage,
his son Joseph was reputed in the law the son of Heli.” This is pure
invention to get over a difficulty—an invention not making the matter
one whit more clear. For if you suppose that these two persons were
brothers, then unless you invent a death of the mother’s last husband
and the widow’s remarriage Jacob and Heli would be the sons of the same
father, and the list of the ancestors should be identical in each
genealogy. But to get over the difficulty the pious do this. They say,
although brothers, they were only half-brothers; although sons of the
same mother, they were not sons of the same father, but had different
fathers. If so, how is it that Salathiel and Zorobabel occur as father
and son in both genealogies? Another fashion of accounting for the
contradiction is to give one as the genealogy of Joseph and the other as
the genealogy of Mary. “Which?” “Luke,” it is said. Why Luke? what are
Luke’s words? Luke speaks of Jesus being, “as was supposed, the son of
Joseph, which was the son of Heli.” When Luke says Joseph, the son of
Heli, [does] he mean Mary, the daughter of Heli? Does the Gospel say one
thing and mean another? because if that argument is worth anything, then
in every case where a man has a theory which disagrees with the text, he
may say the text means something else. If this argument be permitted we
must abandon in Scriptural criticism the meaning which we should
ordinarily intend to convey by any given word. If you believe Luke meant
daughter, why does the same word mean son in every other case all
through the remainder of the genealogy? And if the genealogy of Matthew
be that of Joseph, and the genealogy of Luke be that of Mary, they ought
not to have any point of agreement at all until brought to David. They,
nevertheless, do agree and contradict each other in several places,
destroying the probability of their being intended as distinct
genealogies. There is some evidence that Luke does not give the
genealogy of Mary in the Gospel itself. We are told that Joseph went to
Bethlehem to be numbered because he was of the house of David: if it had
been Mary it would have surely said so. As according to the Christian
theory, Joseph was not the father of Jesus, it is not unfair to ask how
it can be credible that Jesus’s genealogy could be traced to David in
any fashion through Joseph?
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
Reviews
Reviews
No reviews yet
Be the first to share your thoughts on this work.
Elsewhere in the archive
Join the Discussion
Join the discussion
Sign in to leave a comment or review.
Sign InorCreate an account