A. I never heard that a court violated this principle so that there was no need to force the judges to conform to it. Mr. President, I never heard that a German court did not apply a Reich law because in the opinion of the court it was contrary to international law. I never heard of such a case. You see, it was entirely uncontested. The court, just in such a case, couldn’t do anything but through official channels call the attention of the government to this contradiction so that the government, in accordance with its obligation under international law, would see to it that the laws were changed. Let us assume the case that the Reich Supreme Court, for example, in deciding a case had come to the conclusion that a German Reich law was contrary to an obligation of the Reich under international law. Then the Reich Supreme Court was not able to say--the indictment is refused because the Reich law which supports the indictment is contrary to international law. The Reich Supreme Court could do nothing but either to postpone the trial and to report to the government so that perhaps changes would be made in time, but it was not even obliged to do that. It was obliged only if it did make a decision to decide in accordance with national law if it was contrary to the international law. That was the legal situation during the Weimar republic. Q. That answers my question. * * * The Reich Supreme Court would in proper cases lay down the rule that the lower court judge should enforce the German law even though it violated some principle of international law for which Germany as a state might be diplomatically held responsible, is that true? A. No, that is not quite correct. I said that the Reich Supreme Court, just the same as the other German courts, in regard to this question, did not have any doubts at all, and therefore, it did not make any rules with which the lower courts had to comply. That was not necessary at all. Q. Then the lower courts themselves recognized this rule of which you speak that they must enforce the law of the State even though it violates a principle of international law? A. Yes, and they only had to look at the Anschuetz commentary; that said so expressly. Q. Well, at least prior to 1918, was there any tribunal other than the court of the state which could punish the public officer or a judge, for making a decision which was contrary to international law, if it was made in compliance with the law of the state? A. No.