i:5, where he calls them "a manifest _token_ of the righteous judgment of God" upon the unbelieving Jews, the persecutors of the christians. _Second--Who were the righteous, and in what sense they were scarcely saved_. The righteous, mentioned in the 18th verse, mean the same persons called "_the house of God_," and "_us_," in verse 17th, and has reference to those christians _only_, who lived previous to the destruction of the temple, and not to any christians that lived subsequent to that event, much less does it refer to all the righteous that have ever existed or shall hereafter exist, as common opinion asserts. Under this head, we were also to show in what sense these righteous were _scarcely_ saved. It could not mean that their salvation in the future world was _scarce_ or uncertain; for it is _certain_ in the counsels of God, and in all things well ordered and _sure_. He has given to his Son the heathen for an inheritance and the uttermost parts of the earth for a possession. And all the Father hath given him shall come unto him, and he will raise them up the last day. He is mighty to save to the uttermost all that come unto God by him; and no one will deny that the righteous come unto him. How then can their eternal salvation be denominated _scarce_? Impossible. How then are the scriptures to be reconciled with our text, when they declare eternal life to be the gift of God--that we are saved by grace--that help is laid upon one mighty to save--that his arm is not shortened that it cannot save; and that the power of God is to be exerted at the resurrection in making them equal unto the angels? The answer is easily given--our text has no reference whatever to the immortal world, to a judgment at the end of time, nor to the final condition of the human family; but simply refers to the narrow escape of the christians from the destruction of Jerusalem, when they fled with their lives in their hands to the mountains of Judea for safety.