they agree in testifying to the same fact, that the punishment of the
ungodly and the sinner, which mean, no other than the Jewish nation in
their overthrow and dispersion as we have already noticed, shall end.
I see therefore no arguments, that can be drawn from our text, to
prove a future judgment or endless misery in the immortal world. If
the objector can see a shadow of evidence in this passage to support
such a sentiment, yet I must frankly acknowledge that, for myself, I
cannot. There is certainly no word in the text, that has the most
distant allusion to the final condition of man. The _judgment_ began
at the apostles and christians. But is the _"last judgment"_ to begin
at them? Certainly not. But admit that it is; we would further
inquire, did the last judgment begin as early as the days of Peter?
Impossible. Then he could certainly not have had any allusion to such
a day, for he exclaims: "_the time is come_ that judgment must begin
at the house of God." Here the judgment to which he refers had
commenced, or at least the _signs_ portending it had commenced, and it
was to end upon the ungodly inhabitants of Jerusalem. This fact is
evident from the context--"Beloved, think it not strange concerning
the _fiery trial_ which is to try you, as though some strange thing
had happened unto you; but rejoice, inasmuch as ye are partakers of
Christ's sufferings, that when his glory shall be revealed ye may be
glad also with exceeding joy." From this quotation there can arise no
misapprehension as to Peter's application of the text, nor of the
persons it involves. They were the persecutors of the christians, and
no one will dispute that these were the Jews.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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