No fact is more certain than that Christ was to commence his reign at the sound of the _last trump_. Not an instance can be produced, where Jesus has revealed to his apostles, that any trump was to sound subsequent to the one, which announced his coming in his kingdom at the end of the Jewish age. If any one can produce scripture authority where a trump is to sound at the close of his reign, or at the end of time, or even produce testimony to prove the end of time, I will publicly and gratefully acknowledge the favor. Perhaps the 24th verse of the context will be brought forward for this purpose: "Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule, and all authority, and power." This, as it reads, is no objection to my views; but I contend that this is not a correct rendering of the passage. Every careful reader will perceive, that it stands in perfect contradiction with verse 28th: "And when (notice the word when) all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son himself also be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all." This verse teaches a future reign and future subjection, after the kingdom is delivered up to God. What propriety is there in saying, "_when all things are subdued unto him_," after he has resigned his kingdom? What has he to subdue, after the kingdom is delivered "up to God, even the Father". Certainly nothing. I readily grant, that in the modern edition of the Greek Testament I have before me, it is rendered in the dative case, "_teen basileian to Theo kai Patri;" "the kingdom to God even the Father_." But I perused, several years since, a short criticism by an English writer (whose name I cannot recall, nor the periodical which contained it) on this very phrase in which the author stated that in an early Greek manuscript, he had in his possession, it was rendered in the nominative case, "_teen basileian ho Theos kai Pater_." This would reverse the present translation, and cause it to read--"_Then cometh the end when God even the Father shall deliver to him (Christ) the kingdom_." The writer however argued, that as the chapter referred to the general resurrection at the end of time, it seemed to read far better as Christ's mediatoriol kingdom would then terminate. This is mere assertion founded upon preconceived opinions. I will, however, produce direct authority to support my views. I will here present the reader with Wakefield's translation of this passage, whose scholarship will be doubted by none: "_Then will the end be, when God the Father delivereth up the kingdom to him, during which he will destroy all dominion, and all authority and power; for he will reign till he hath put every enemy under his feet; and so the enemy death will be destroyed at last_."