~The Question of Shakespeare’s Authorship.~ The only reason for
ascribing the play to Shakespeare is its merit. It seems incredible
that a drama so mature in its art should have been written in 1592
by a writer otherwise unknown to us. In three directions the art of
the writer is mature. First, the character of the base coward Mosbie,
and of the ‘bourgeois Clytemnestra,’ Alice Arden, are drawn with an
insight, delicacy, and sustained power new to English literature in
1592, and not excelled till Shakespeare excelled them. The picture of
Arden, as a man fascinated and bewitched by his wife and by his fate,
might match that of Mosbie and Alice if the artist had not blurred his
conception by the introduction of the jarring motives of avarice and
sacrilege. But the poet’s aim is clear; it is his own, and it almost
succeeds. Second, the picturesque ferocity and grim humour of Black
Will and Shakebag are described with a firmness and ease and restraint
of style which critics have not sufficiently noted. I can compare it
only with the Jack Cade scenes of the _Contention_ (and _2 Henry VI._).
The prose of our poet is excellent. His humour has a clearly defined
character and style of its own. The character of Michael, so admired
by Mr. Swinburne, is as subtle and well-sustained as Mosbie’s or Alice
Arden’s, and it exhibits our poet’s special humorous gift. This gift,
excellent as it is, seems to me very definitely not Shakespearean.
But thirdly, the terrifying use of signs and omens and of an almost
Shakespearean irony--_e.g._ Arden’s words, ‘I am almost stifled with
this fog!’--combine to produce as the play proceeds an impressive sense
of ‘the slow unerring tread of assassination, balked but persevering,
marching like a fate to its accomplishment.’ But the special
excellencies of the play are all against Shakespeare having written
it by 1592. As Mr. Bullen insists, the weak point in Mr. Swinburne’s
criticism is the phrase ‘a young man’s work.’ This play is not ‘a young
man’s work.’ The copiousness of the young man Shakespeare’s work is
the exact contrary of the deliberate anxious effort which marks the
style of _Arden of Faversham_ except in the prose scenes. In none of
Shakespeare’s plays can it be perceived that the poet has taken such
pains as the poet of _Arden_ takes. Unless Shakespeare wrote this play
as soon as he reached London, and then for a year or two wrote nothing
else, it is impossible to fit it into his work. And if he wrote the
play as soon as he reached London and then took up the studies which
resulted in _Venus and Adonis_ and _Lucrece_, would he have written
_Love’s Labour’s Lost_ and _Comedy of Errors_ on his way back to work
like _Arden_? If Shakespeare wrote _Arden_ it is the most interesting
fact in his literary development. To suggest that Shakespeare revised
the play is to shirk the question. Its excellence is in its warp and
woof, not in its ornaments.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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