Baptism According to ScriptureHoare, E. H. (Edward Hatch)
Religion
Baptism According to Scripture
Hoare, E. H. (Edward Hatch)
Baptism; Baptism -- Biblical teaching; Baptism -- Church of England; Baptism -- History
manner in which it was mentioned, that water was to be the means of
communicating the new birth, or that the two things were always to be
found together, it is not easy to imagine. Especially as in the very
same address he was told, that, in giving the new birth, the Holy Spirit
acts as “the wind _blowing where it listeth_.” Now baptism must always
be administered _at a specific time_; but is this the case with the
blowing of the wind? Did Christ then use an inappropriate metaphor? He
plainly tells Nicodemus, that as “a master of Israel” he ought to have
understood what He was speaking of. But what is there in the Old
Testament from which Nicodemus could have learned the necessary
connection of the new birth with any outward Ordinance? Was the
circumcision of the heart always connected with the circumcision of the
flesh? Had not the Lord, in the time of Moses, bidden the people of
Israel to “circumcise the foreskin of their hearts”? (Deut. x. 16.) And
had He not said of them by Jeremiah, “All the house of Israel are
uncircumcised in the heart”? (ix. 26.) _This_ was the doctrine to which
Nicodemus had been accustomed:—_the necessity_ of both the outward and
the inward circumcision, but _not_ their necessary connection with each
other. So likewise with the new birth and baptism.
And as Scripture is, and must be, consistent with Scripture, let the
latter part of Christ’s address to Nicodemus be compared with His
subsequent directions concerning baptism, and compared also with the
writings of His Apostles, and it will be seen, that _faith in Him_, which
He so frequently mentions as leading to salvation, _is that with which
the birth of the Spirit is connected_, and that _this faith is invariably
required before the administration of the Ordinance to any_. How then
can baptism with water convey the birth of the Spirit, unless Christ and
His Apostles be at issue with each other, and the order of things, which
He Himself appointed in His Church, be inverted? St. John expressly
declares in his Gospel, (i. 12, 13.) that “as many as received Him,
(Jesus Christ) to them _gave He power to become the sons of God_, even
_to them that believe on His name_; which were born, not of blood, nor of
the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.” And in his
First Epistle, (v. 1.) “_Whosoever believeth_ that Jesus is the Christ
_is born of God_.” And the order which Christ intended for the
administration of baptism by His Apostles was thus laid down for
them;—“He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved.” And they acted
accordingly. No statement was ever more capable of proof than this, that
the birth of the Spirit may be without baptism, and baptism without the
birth of the Spirit. Can any doubt, that the penitent thief on the cross
was “born of the Spirit,” who yet was not baptized? Can any venture to
affirm, that Simon Magus, though baptized, was “born of the Spirit”? Did
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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