Christianity and Greek Philosophy: or, the relation between spontaneous and reflective thought in Greece and the positive teaching of Christ and His ApostlesCocker, B. F. (Benjamin Franklin)
Religion
Christianity and Greek Philosophy: or, the relation between spontaneous and reflective thought in Greece and the positive teaching of Christ and His Apostles
Cocker, B. F. (Benjamin Franklin)
Christianity; Church history -- Primitive and early church, ca. 30-600; Philosophy, Ancient
He also totally misrepresents Plato's doctrine of "Ideas." "Plato's
Ideas," he says, "are substantial existences--real beings"
("Metaphysics," bk. i. ch. ix.). Whereas, as we shall subsequently show,
"they are objects of pure conception for human reason, and they are
attributes of the Divine Reason. It is there they substantially exist."
(Cousin, "History of Philosophy," vol. i. p. 415). It is also pertinent
to inquire, what is the difference between the "formal cause" of
Aristotle and the archetypal ideas of Plato? and is not Plato's τὸ
ἀγαθόν the "final cause?" Yet Aristotle is forever congratulating
himself that he alone has properly treated the "formal" and the "final
cause!"]
[Footnote 434: This, however, was not the doctrine of Plato. He does not
say "forms are numbers." He says: "God formed things as they first arose
according to forms _and_ numbers." See "Timaeus," ch. xiv. and xxvii.]
[Footnote 435: Aristotle's "Metaphysics," bk. i. ch. vi.]
Now the writings of Plato are all extant to-day, and accessible in an
excellent English translation to any of our readers. Cousin has
shown,[436] most conclusively (and we can verify his conclusions for
ourselves), that Aristotle has totally misrepresented Plato. And if, in
the same connection, and in the course of the same argument, and in
regard to the same subjects, he misrepresents Plato, it is most probable
he also misrepresents Pythagoras.
[Footnote 436: "The True, the Beautiful, and the Good," pp. 77-81.]
It is, however, a matter of the deepest interest for us to find the
evidence gleaming out here and there, on the pages of Aristotle, that he
had some knowledge of the fact that the Pythagorean numbers were
regarded as _symbols_. The "numbers" of Pythagoras are, in the mind of
Aristotle, clearly identified with the "forms" of Plato. Now, in Chapter
VI. of the First Book he says that Plato taught that these "forms" were
παραδείγματα--models, patterns, exemplars after which created things
were framed. The numbers of Pythagoras, then, are also models and
exemplars. This also is admitted by Aristotle. The Pythagoreans indeed
affirm that entities subsist by an _imitation_ (μίμησις) of
numbers.[437] Now if ideas, forms, numbers, were the models or paradigms
after which "the Operator" formed all things, surely it can not be
logical to say they were the "material" out of which all things were
framed, much less the "efficient cause" of things. The most legitimate
conclusion we can draw, even from the statements of Aristotle, is that
the Pythagoreans regarded numbers as the best expression or
representation of those laws of proportion, and order, and harmony,
which seemed, to their eyes, to pervade the universe. Their doctrine was
a faint glimpse of that grand discovery of modern science--that all the
higher laws of nature assume the form of a precise quantitative
statement.
[Footnote 437: Aristotle's "Metaphysics," bk. i. ch. vi.]
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