APPENDIX II.
Is Euclid's Axiom true?
§ 1.
[Pg 40]
Infinite and Finite Magnitudes.
The answer I propose to give to this alarming question is that, though
true for Finite Magnitudes—the sense in which, as I believe, Euclid
meant it to be taken—it is not universally true.
Will the gentle Reader be so kind as to join me in contemplating,
for a few minutes, the Infinite Space which surrounds our tiny
planet? We believe—those of us, at least, who answer fully
to the ancient definition of Man, 'animal rationale'—that
it is infinite. And that, not because we profess to have
grasped the conception of Infinity, but because the contrary
hypothesis contradicts Reason: and what contradicts Reason
we feel ourselves authorised to deny. Both conceptions—that
Space has a limit, and that it has none—are beyond our Reason:
but the former is also against our Reason: for we may fairly
say "When we have reached the limit, what then? What do we come to?
There must be either Something, or Nothing. If Something, it
is full Space, 'plenum': if Nothing, it is empty
Space, 'vacuum.' That there should be neither of these is
a logical impossibility. Such an hypothesis would be—in the[Pg 41] words of
Master Constable Dogberry—'most tolerable and not to be endured.'"
I propose to show, by certain considerations which begin with Infinite
Space, but will speedily condescend to Finite Magnitudes, that it is
possible for two homogeneous Magnitudes to be so related to each other
that no multiple of the lesser will exceed the greater. (It
is of course assumed that a 'multiple' of a Magnitude is the result
produced by the use of a 'multiplier,' and that a 'multiplier' is a
nameable—and therefore a finite—number.)
"Yet surely," the gentle Reader will protest, "Euclid has assumed the
exact contrary of this? Does he not, in Book X, Prop. 1, tacitly
assume the Axiom that the lesser of two Magnitudes may be so multiplied
as to exceed the greater?"
Gentle Reader, he does! But my contention is that, in so
doing, he excludes from his view both Infinities and Infinitesimals,
and is contemplating Finite Magnitudes only.
For consider Euclid's Definitions of the word 'Ratio' and of the phrase
'to have a Ratio to.' (Book V. Def. 3, 4.)
(3) λόγος ἐστὶ δύο μεγεθῶν ὁμογενῶν ἡ κατὰ πηλικότητα πρὸς ἄλληλα ποιὰ
σχέσις.
(4) λόγον ἔχειν πρὸς ἄλληλα μεγέθη λέγεται, ἅ δύναται πολλαπλασιαζόμενα
ἀλλήλων ὑπερέχειν.
Quite literally, these are:—
(3) "Ratio is a certain relationship, as to size, of two homogeneous
Magnitudes, each to the other."
(4) "Magnitudes, which can, (on) being multiplied, exceed each the
other, are said to have a Ratio, each to the other."
But they become more intelligible when less literally translated:—
(3) "Ratio is a certain relationship, as to size, borne, by a
Magnitude, to another Magnitude homogeneous with it."
[Pg 42]
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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