The question now returns, Is "the Will always as the greatest apparent
good," in either of the senses of the phrase as above defined?
THE WILL NOT ALWAYS AS THE DICTATES OF THE INTELLIGENCE.
I. Is the Will then as the greatest apparent good in this sense, that
all its determinations are in conformity to the dictates of the
Intelligence. Does the Will never harmonize with the Sensibility in
opposition to the Intelligence? Has no intelligent being, whether sinful
or holy, ever done that which his Intellect affirmed at the time, that
he ought not to do, and that it was best for him not to do? I answer,
1. Every man who has ever violated moral obligation knows, that he has
followed the impulse of desire, in opposition to the dictates of his
Intelligence. What individual that has ever perpetrated such deeds has
not said, and cannot say with truth, "I know the good, and approve it;
yet follow the bad?" Take a matter of fact. A Spanish nobleman during
the early progress of the Reformation, became fully convinced, that the
faith of the Reformers was true, and his own false, and that his
salvation depended upon his embracing the one and rejecting the other.
Yet martyrdom would be the result of such a change. While balancing this
question, in the depths of his own mind, he trembled with the greatest
agitation. His sovereign who was present, asked the cause. The reply
was, "the martyr's crown is before me, and I have not Christian
fortitude enough to take it." He died a few weeks subsequent, without
confessing the truth. Did he obey his Intelligence, or Sensibility
there? Was not the conflict between the two, and did not the latter
prevail? In John 12: 42, 43, we have a fact revealed, in which men were
convinced of the truth, and yet, because "they loved the praise of men
more than the praise of God," they did not confess, but denied the
truth, a case therefore in which they followed the impulse of desire, in
opposition to the dictates of the Intelligence. The Will then is not
"always as the greatest apparent good," in this sense, that its action
is always in the direction of the dictates of the Intelligence.
2. If this is so, sin, in all instances, is a mere blunder, a necessary
result of a necessary misjudgment of the Intelligence? Is it so? Can the
Intelligence affirm that a state of moral impurity is better than a
state of moral rectitude? How easy it would be, in every instance, to
"convert a sinner from the error of his way," if all that is requisite
is to carry his Intellect in favor of truth and righteousness? Who does
not know, that the great difficulty lies in the enslavement of the Will
to a depraved Sensibility?
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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