features besides this which are difficult of explanation on any other grounds. For these I may briefly refer to the second of the works relating to this part of the subject, _The Syro-Latin Text of the Gospels_, by F. H. Chase,[231] in which a special chapter is devoted to the question of “Harmonistic Influence” (pp. 76-100). The writer calls attention there to three points, viz.:— 1. “The text of Codex Bezae shows constant indications of harmonistic influence.” This, however, is nothing new. Jerome, _e.g._, complains of amalgamations of this sort. But then, 2. “In such harmonized passages readings occur which we are justified by other evidence in considering as Tatianic readings.” 3. “There are other signs of the influence of Syriac phraseology in, or in the neighbourhood of, such readings due to harmonistic influence.” I waive consideration of this last point, but as regards the second it is noteworthy, and bears out what I have said above, that Chase in this connection goes almost entirely by passages from Luke with the exception of Matt. xxi. 18; xxiv. 31 f.; xxvi. 59 ff.; and Mark viii. 10; xiii. 2; x. 25 ff. From Luke he instances iii. 23-38; iv. 31; v. 10 f., 14 f.; vi. 42; viii. 35; xi. 2; xx. 20; xxi. 7; xxiii. 45 ff.; xxiv. 1. I should like, however, to call attention here to one passage to which Chase refers in another connection—viz., the extensive interpolation after Matt. xx. 28 (Chase, pp. 9-14). It is true, as Zahn expressly points out,[232] that neither Ephraem nor Aphraates, who were our only sources for the Diatessaron prior to 1881, “shows any traces of this long and in part apocryphal interpolation, nor yet of Luke xiv. 7-10, from which the most of it is taken.” But in the Arabic Tatian,[233] Luke xiv. 1-6 and xiv. 7-11, 12-15 are found after Matt. xx. 1-16 at the end of § 29 and the beginning of § 30 respectively. The verse Matt. xx. 28, regarding which Zahn was uncertain whether it was in Tatian or not, seeing that neither Ephraem nor Aphraates mentions it, is found in § 31, 5 between Mark x. 44 and Luke xiii. 22, while Matt. xx, 29_a_ (+ Mark x. 46_a_) follows a little further down in § 31, 25. So far, indeed, this result is not favourable to our theory. But I ask myself in vain how else this interpolation is to be explained except as an attempt at harmonising. Now, seeing that its text is found in one Syriac, two Greek, and half a dozen Latin witnesses (the particulars are given in the critical note, p. 255), the further question arises, Whence comes it? The most ready answer will be, “it comes from the Greek, whence it passed to the Latin on the one side and to the Syriac on the other.” As for the Latin, it is certain that the majority, perhaps even all, of the Latin forms are derived from the Greek. But are the Syriac as well? Or is not rather the converse true, however strange it may seem at the first glance, that the Greek is a translation of the Syriac? There is