the word δειπνοκλήτωρ, _e.g._, which strikes me as it did Chase, as being particularly strange. I admit that I should not care to build a hypothesis of this magnitude on this one word and this one passage alone. I would merely submit it generally as a question to be kept in view in further investigations. And I would supplement it by another question whether, in the case of the first being negatived, it may not be true after all, _pace_ Zahn, that there was a Greek Harmony alongside the Syriac and probably going back to the same author. May not the close resemblances traceable between Tatian and the Western text be also accounted for on the supposition that instead of Tatian being influenced by the latter, it really goes back to Tatian? I would ask this question specially in regard to the Western text of the _Pauline Epistles_. What is meant by the statement of Eusebius cited above as to Tatian’s treatment of these Epistles? Μεταφράσαι may certainly mean to translate, but then one translates an entire text and not φωνάς τινας merely, and, moreover, one does not translate ὡς ἐπιδιορθούμενος αὐτῶν τὴν τῆς φράσεως σύνταξιν “with a view to improving the phraseology and syntax.” Do not our Western witnesses present us with a work of this description? I am well aware that such hypotheses are like that regarding the author of the _Nibelungenlied_ where there was a great poem without a name and one or two great names without poems, and so various combinations were made, for each of which something could be said, while none of them could be said to be proved. That may be the case here too. But at present I feel disposed to attribute a considerable share in this peculiar “Western” text to Tatian. [Sidenote: Syro-Latin.] And as this name “Western,” the inappropriateness of which has long been recognised, becomes on this supposition more inappropriate still, I am inclined to recommend the freer adoption of the nomenclature familiarised by the work of Chase, I mean that of “Syro-Latin.” In his preface Chase puts in a plea for its use, citing a sentence from the _Dublin Review_ of July 1894, p. 52, in which H. Lucas says: “The time is, we hope, not far distant, when the term Western will give place to the term Syro-Latin, the only one which truly represents, in our opinion, the facts of the case.” Just as when we wish to indicate those languages and tribes that extend from the Indian to the German and Keltic we say Indo-Germanic, or Indo-Keltic, if we wish to be more exact and avoid wounding the sensibilities of the French, so the term Syro-Latin would be the best designation for a form of text whose characteristics are as distinctly traceable among the Syrians in the East as among the Greeks in the centre and the Latins in the West. But be that as it may, one thing is clear, that many problems here await solution. But they will not for ever defy methodical investigation.