Notes and Queries, Vol. IV, Number 105, November 1, 1851: A Medium of Inter-communication for Literary Men, Artists, Antiquaries, Genealogists, etc.Various
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Notes and Queries, Vol. IV, Number 105, November 1, 1851: A Medium of Inter-communication for Literary Men, Artists, Antiquaries, Genealogists, etc.
Various
Questions and answers -- Periodicals
In all these passages the words are quoted _affirmatively_, as is
evident from the context; and it seems more likely, as well as more
charitable, to believe that our translators were induced to adopt the
present version in deference to such authorities, than to impute to them
paltry motives of party purposes, which at the same time they have
themselves taken the surest means to get exposed, by printing the
inserted word in Italics. Can CEPHAS adduce any Father who quotes the
text as he would read it, in the imperative mood, and with the sense of
"all things," not "all persons?" There may be such, but they require to
be alleged in the face of positive and adverse testimony. It is evident
that the mere substitution of ἔστω for ἐστι, without an
entire change of the rest of the passage, will make no difference;
for that which was an assertion before will then have become a command.
II. CEPHAS proposes another version, and observes, "H. WALTER mistakes
the adjective feminine ἐν πᾶσι as meaning 'all men,' whereas it
signifies here 'in all things.'" Probably this is the first time that
MR. H. WALTER and your other readers ever heard that ἐν πᾶσι
was a _feminine_ adjective. Your learned critic must surely have either
forgotten his Greek grammar, in his haste to correct the translators of
the Bible, or else is not strong in the genders; for he has unluckily
hit upon the very gender which πᾶσι cannot be, by any
possibility. But let it pass for a "lapsus memoriæ." However, he
supports his version of "all things" by one other passage, 2 Cor. xi.
6., where yet it _may_ be translated, as Hammond himself does in the
margin, "among all men" (cf. v. 8.): and I will offer him one other:
ἵνα ἐν πᾶσι δοξάζηται ὁ Θεὸς διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ.--1 Pet.
iv. 11.
[Scil. χαρίσμασιν.]
But does CEPHAS mean to say that ἐν πᾶσι is _always_ to be thus
rendered, when found without a substantive? Here are five passages from
St. Paul's Epistles, in which, with one possible exception, it
_evidently_ means "persons," not "things."
1. ὁ δὲ αὐτός ἐστι Θεὸς, ὁ ἐνεργῶν τὰ πάντα ἐν πᾶσιν.--1 Cor.
xii. 6.
2. ἵνα ᾖ ὁ Θεὸς τὰ πάντα ἐν πᾶσιν.--1 Cor. xv. 28.
3. βάρβαρος, Σκύθης, δοῦλος, ἐλεύθερος, ἀλλὰ τὰ πάντα καὶ ἐν πᾶσι
Χριστός.--Col. iii. 11.
4. ταῦτα μελέτα, ἐν τούτοις ἴσθι· ἵνα σοῦ ἡ προκοπὴ φανερὰ ᾖ ἐν
πᾶσιν.--1 Tim. iv. 15.
5. ἀλλ' οὐκ ἐν πᾶσιν ἡ γνῶσις.--1 Cor. viii. 7.
Upon the whole, then, I imagine that if any one will take the trouble to
compare the passages above cited, and others in which the phrase
ἐν πᾶσι is used, he will find that _generally_ it refers to "persons,"
and requires to be limited by the context before it bears the sense of
"_things_:"--in other words, that the former meaning is to be considered
the rule, the latter the exception.
E. A. D.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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