Your pages are not suited to the discussion of topics like this: I mean, that to enter fully into all the points raised by MR. MARGOLIOUTH, would occupy more space than you could afford. I therefore write only a few general remarks, lest my silence should be interpreted as an acquiescence in MR. M.'S arguments. The difficulty MR. M. has to contend with is evidently this: how came the eminent Hebrew scholars, who were the authors of the ancient versions--how came the whole body of Jewish Rabbis who have written upon the law, to be ignorant of what seems so clear to MR. M., that םיבותכה, in the passage in question was in fact a proper name, denoting _the place_ in which Eldad and Medad were? How came it that they all took it in the sense expressed in our English version? [I do not admit the Chaldee paraphrase as an exception (notwithstanding what MR. M. remarks), because the words איביתכב ‎ואנון are an exact rendering of the Hebrew text, and partake of the same ambiguity, if there be any ambiguity.] The legend which I quoted from Rashi clearly proves that the Jews of his time understood the passage as our English translators have done. This is MR. M.'s difficulty: and how does he meet it? He says, "What of that, if they happen to be wrong? Such a consideration will never interfere with my own judgment, founded on a thorough knowledge of the meaning of the Hebrew word." What is this but to say that the Septuagint translators, the authors of the other ancient versions, the Jewish Rabbis, had not the same "thorough knowledge of the meaning of the Hebrew word" which MR. M. "in his own judgment" believes himself to possess? I do not, however, suppose that MR. M. really intends to set up his own judgment against these authorities, as if he was better acquainted with Hebrew than those who lived when the language was vernacular; but when he tells us "that he has long since learned that opinions are not necessarily true because they are old, nor doctrines undeniably infallible because we have believed them from our cradles," it becomes necessary to remind him that I never asserted any such thing, and that my argument, from authority, amounted simply to this,--that the judgment of the LXX, and other ancient translators, with that of all the Jewish Rabbis of later date, was a better authority, in my judgment, as to the meaning of a Hebrew word, than the unsupported opinion of MR. MARGOLIOUTH, which (as it seems to me) is also inconsistent with the context of the passage. If MR. M. will produce the judgment of any other authority, especially of those who lived near the time when Hebrew was a vernacular language (for this is what makes the age of the authority valuable), his opinion will be more worthy of attention. MR. M. says, as one of his arguments, "It would appear that DR. TODD himself found the ב insurmountable, and therefore omitted it in his last Hebrew quotation."