When a certain number of men, who cannot live without labour and without
property, unite to support a _common authority_, they evidently desire
to be able to labour, and to enjoy the fruits of their labour in all
security, and not to place their faculties and their properties at
the mercy of that authority. Even antecedent to all form of regular
government, I do not believe that individuals could be properly deprived
of the _right of defence_--the right of defending their persons, their
faculties, and their possessions.
Without pretending, in this place, to philosophise upon the origin and
the extent of the rights of governments--a vast subject, well calculated
to deter me--permit me to submit the following idea to you. It seems to
me that the rights of the state can only be the reduction into method
of personal rights _previously existing_. I cannot, for myself, conceive
_collective right_ which has not its root in _individual right_, and
does not presume it. Then, in order to know if the state is legitimately
invested with a right, it is incumbent on us to ask whether this right
dwells in the individual in virtue of his being and independently of all
government.
It is upon this principle that I denied some time ago the right of
labour. I said, since Peter has no right to take directly from Paul what
Paul has acquired by his labour, there is no better foundation for this
pretended right through the intervention of the state: for the state
is but the _public authority_ created by Peter and by Paul, at their
expense, with a defined and clear object in view, but which never can
render that just which is in itself not so. It is with the aid of this
touchstone that I test the distinction between property secured and
property controlled by the state. Why has the state the right to
secure, even by force, every man's property? Because this right exists
previously in the individual. No one can deny to individuals the _right
of lawful defence_--the right of employing force, if necessary, to
repel the injuries directed against their persons, their faculties,
and their effects. It is conceived that this individual right, since
it resides in all men, can assume the collective form, and justify
the employment of public authority. And why has the state no right to
_equalize_ or apportion worldly wealth? _Because, in order to do so, it
is necessary to rob some in order to gratify others_. Now, as none of
the thirty-five millions of Frenchmen have the right to take by force,
under the pretence of rendering fortunes more equal, it does not appear
how they could invest public authority with this right.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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