They say: "Suppose a person with $5,000 in money enters the cotton
market, and with his money purchases $5,000 worth of cotton. His
demand for cotton and his purchase of $5,000 worth will tend to
advance or stimulate the price of cotton." "Now," they say, "suppose
he has a credit of $5,000 and with this credit he purchases an
additional $5,000 worth of cotton. The second purchase, made on
credit," they contend, "will tend to still further advance the price
of cotton in the same manner and to the same extent that the cash
purchase did." Is this true?
Let us suppose that he purchased the second bunch of cotton on ninety
days' time. At the end of the ninety days he must pay for this cotton.
If he draws the $5,000 with which he pays this debt from money
invested in the cotton trade, the withdrawal of that sum from money
invested in that industry will tend to depress the price of cotton to
the extent that it was stimulated by the credit. If he withdraws it
from the grain trade or from some other industry, the withdrawal of
that sum of money will tend to depress prices in the industry from
which it is withdrawn to the same extent as the cotton industry was
stimulated by the credit. Whether the money to pay the debt is taken
from the cotton industry or from some other industry, the general
level of prices has not been raised. The purchase in the first
instance may have temporarily stimulated the price of cotton, but if
the payment of the debt is made from money drawn from that industry,
it will depress the price of cotton to where it was before the credit
purchase was made; and if the payment is made from money drawn from
some other industry, it will depress prices in that industry to the
same extent that the price of cotton was stimulated. In either event
the general level of prices remains the same. It is like robbing Peter
to pay Paul. It may make Paul richer, but how about Peter? There is no
more wealth in existence than before the robbery was committed.
Again, it is claimed that credit stimulates prices by causing
commodities which are sold on credit to be sold for higher prices than
commodities of the same value are sold for when sold for cash. It is
true that sales on credit are, as a rule, at a higher price than sales
for cash in hand. Why is this so? For two reasons:
1st. Business done on credit is always attended with considerable
risk. Even when the utmost caution is exercised, bad debts will be
made, and a greater margin on sales is necessary.
2nd. When time is given a certain amount must be added to the price of
the goods to compensate the seller for the use of his capital between
the date of sale and the maturity of the account.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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