The Bible and Polygamy: Does the Bible Sanction Polygamy? — John Shaqi
The Bible and Polygamy: Does the Bible Sanction Polygamy?Newman, John Philip
Religion
The Bible and Polygamy: Does the Bible Sanction Polygamy?
Newman, John Philip
Bible -- Criticism, interpretation, etc.; Latter Day Saint churches -- Doctrines; Polygamy -- Religious aspects
Here is a law, in the words of the Great Law-giver himself, the Lord,
who spake to Moses; and it certainly must be a sanction of a plurality
of wives, for it is given to regulate inheritances in families of
that description, as well as in families wherein the first wife may
have been divorced, or may be dead; wives contemporary and wives that
are successive. It refers to both classes; and inasmuch as plurality
of wives is nowhere condemned in the law of God, we have a right to
believe from this law that plurality of wives is just as legal and
proper as that of the marriage of a single wife. This is the ground
we are forced to take until we can find some law, some evidence, some
testimony to the contrary. They are acknowledged as wives in this
passage, at least--"If a man have two wives." It is well known that
the House of Israel at that time practised both monogamy and polygamy.
They were not exclusively monogamists; neither were they exclusively
polygamists. There were monogamic families existing in Israel in those
days, and therefore in the Lord giving this He referred not only to
successive wives, where a man had married after the death of his first
wife, or if the first wife had been divorced for some legal cause, but
to wives who were contemporary, as there were many families in Israel,
which can be proved if necessary, that were polygamists. I might here
refer to the existence of this principle concerning the rights of the
first-born in monogamic and polygamic families prior to the date of
this law. This seems to have been given to regulate a question that had
a prior existence. I will refer, before I proceed from this passage,
to the monogamic family of Isaac, wherein we have the declaration that
Esau and Jacob, being twins, had a dispute, or at least there was
an ill feeling on the part of Esau, because Jacob at a certain time
had purchased the right of the first-born--that is, his birth-right.
The first-born, though twins, and perhaps a few moments intervening
between the first and second, or only a short time, had rights, and
those rights were respected and honored centuries before the days of
Moses. This was a monogamic family, so far as we are informed; for if
Isaac had more than one wife, the Bible does not inform us. We come
to Jacob, who was a polygamist, and whose first-born son pertained to
the father and not to the mother. There were not four first-born sons
to Jacob who were entitled to the rights of the first-born, but only
one. The first-born to Jacob was Reuben, and he would have retained
the birth-right had he not transgressed the law of heaven. Because
of transgression he lost that privilege. It was taken from him and
given to Joseph, or rather to the two sons of Joseph, as you will find
recorded in the fifth chapter of 1st Chronicles. Here then the rights
of the first-born were acknowledged, in both polygamic and monogamic
families, before the law under consideration was given. The House of
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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