The Bible and Polygamy: Does the Bible Sanction Polygamy? — John Shaqi
The Bible and Polygamy: Does the Bible Sanction Polygamy?Newman, John Philip
Religion
The Bible and Polygamy: Does the Bible Sanction Polygamy?
Newman, John Philip
Bible -- Criticism, interpretation, etc.; Latter Day Saint churches -- Doctrines; Polygamy -- Religious aspects
It may be asked, What has this to do with polygamy? I answer that as
the law is general, it is binding upon brethren and upon all near
kinsmen dwelling together. Not unmarried brethren or unmarried kinsmen,
but the married and unmarried. The law is general. If it can be proved
from the original, or from any source whatever, that the law is not
general, then the point will have to be given up. But if that cannot
be proven, then here is a law that not only sanctions polygamy, but
commands it; and if we can find one law where a command is given,
then plurality of wives would be established on a permanent footing,
equal in legality to that of monogamy. This law of God absolutely
does command all persons, whether married or unmarried, it makes no
difference--brethren dwelling together, or near kinsmen dwelling
together--which shows that it is not unmarried persons living in the
same house that are meant, but persons living together in the same
neighborhood, in the same country in Israel, as it is well known that
Israel in ancient days did so dwell together; and the law was binding
upon them. This was calculated to make a vast number of polygamists
in Israel from that day until the coming of Christ. And the Christian
religion must have admitted these polygamists into the Church, because
they would have been condemned if they had not observed this law.
There was a penalty attached to it, and they could not be justified
and refuse to obey it. Hence there must have been hundreds, perhaps
thousands, of polygamists in Israel, when Jesus came, who were living
in obedience to this law and who would have been condemned if they had
disobeyed it. When the gospel was preached to them, if they could not
have been admitted into the Christian Church without divorcing their
wives God would have been unjust to them, for if they, through their
obedience to God's law, should have been cut off from the gospel, would
it not have been both inconsistent and unjust? But as there is no law
either in the Old or New Testament against polygamy, and as we here
find polygamy commanded, we must come to the conclusion that it is a
legal form of marriage. We cannot come to any other conclusion, for
it stands on a par with the monogamic form of marriage; consequently,
wherever we find either righteous men or wicked men, whatever may be
their practices in the course of their lives, it does not affect the
legality of their marriage with one wife or with two wives.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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