(5) A fifth argument dwells on _the different senses_ in which Divine Sonship is predicated of the promised child in verse 32 as compared with verse 35. As we have seen, the term υἱὸς ᾿Υψίστου in verse 32 is purely Messianic. But in verse 35 the expression υἱὸς θεοῦ must be given a very different meaning. It is in consequence of (διὸ καί) the divine overshadowing that the child is to be called “Son of God”. Here, to quote Dr. J. Estlin Carpenter, the term denotes “not official adoption, but actual origin”, and, with the same writer, we must conclude that verse 35 “is thus a doublet of verses 31, 32 on another plane” (op. cit., p. 487).(41) It is more difficult to decide whether the difference supports the theory of interpolation. We cannot shut out the possibility that two diverse types of Sonship might have been attributed by St. Luke to the same speaker at the same time of writing. But, having said this, we may observe that it is certainly much easier to suppose, and is much more probable, that they belong to different periods of reflection, and are the product (or deposit) of different traditions. This argument, then, may be said to lean in the direction of the theory of interpolation, but, for the reason given above, we should hesitate to urge it, if it stood alone. (6) We have lastly to look at the vexed question of the Davidic descent. It is safe to say that, if we had not Lk. i. 34 f. in the Gospel as it stands to‐day, we should have no ground for regarding Mary as of Davidic descent. It is the presence of these verses that makes possible that inference in verse 32, where, in addressing Mary, the angel speaks of David as the forefather of the promised child. It is surely a remarkable fact that a point so vital to St. Luke’s narrative as the Davidic descent of Mary should be introduced in so incidental a manner. Our wonder is increased when we observe that St. Luke is at great pains to assure Theophilus of the Davidic descent of Joseph. In ii. 4 it is said that Joseph was “_of the house and family of David_”; not a word is said of Mary’s descent. It is true that the Sin. Syr. reads, “because they were both of the house of David”; but this does not naturally fit into the structure of the sentence, is unsupported elsewhere, and is accepted by no one; it clearly represents an attempt to remove a difficulty. In. i. 27 it is also said that Joseph was “_of the house of David_”. The phrase cannot be construed with the word “virgin”, which occurs earlier in the sentence, in view of the fact that after ἐξ οἴκου Δανείδ St. Luke resumes the thread of the story by saying “and the virgin’s name was Mary”; otherwise, he would have continued (so Schmiedel, op. cit., col. 2957), “and her name was Mary”. It is not easy indeed to resist Schmiedel’s further contention that the phrasing of the sentence expressly forbids our ascribing the Davidic descent to Mary, though the opinion is put forward with greater confidence than seems justified.