The Jesus Problem: A Restatement of the Myth TheoryRobertson, J. M. (John Mackinnon)
Religion
The Jesus Problem: A Restatement of the Myth Theory
Robertson, J. M. (John Mackinnon)
Jesus Christ
In this connection, finally, it has to be noted that Professor
Schmiedel finds an à priori authenticity in a prediction in which
Jesus claims supernatural status, though the ostensibly unhistorical
character of such claims was his avowed ground for positing the
"pillar-texts" which alone defied all skepticism. And the formula
in both cases is the same--"it could not have been invented." [398]
The major premiss involved is: "No passage could be invented which
would stultify the position of the believers." But do none of the
admitted inventions [399] in the gospels stultify the position of the
believers? The two genealogies do; the anti-Davidic passages stultify
these; the pro-Samaritan teaching stultifies the anti-Samaritan;
and so on through twenty cases of contradiction. M. Loisy, indeed,
claims the pro-Samaritan passage as genuine: does he then admit the
anti-Samaritan to be spurious?
The biographical school cannot have it both ways. The very fact that
they have to oust so many passages on the score of incompatibility
is the complete answer to the plea of "genuine because unsuitable
to the purposes of the propaganda." The fact that a multitude of
contradictions are left standing proves simply that when once an
awkward passage was installed it was nearly impossible to get rid of
it; because some copies were always left which retained it; and in
the stage of increasing respect for the written word it was generally
restored. The "Jesus" before Barabbas was at last ejected only because
everybody recoiled from it. Predictions were not so easily dropped.
On the page on which he claims that Jesus' prediction of his Second
Coming could not have been invented, Professor Schmiedel avows that
various passages in Mt. xxiv really belong to "a small composition,
perhaps Jewish, on the signs of the end of the world, written shortly
before the destruction of Jerusalem in the year 70." If the one set of
passages are borrowed, why not the other? Was it unlikely that Jewish
eschatologists should predict the coming of the Son of Man at the
near end of the world, and that Jesuists should put the prediction in
the mouth of their Lord and make him say it of himself? The à priori
negative is quite untenable.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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