In the great commission Jesus commanded the apostles to make disciples of all the nations—to preach the gospel to the whole creation. This was a demand for world-wide evangelism, regardless of race or nationality. Had such evangelism been foretold by the prophets? What saith the Lord? In Luke’s account of this commission he quotes Jesus as saying: “Thus it is written, that the Christ should suffer, and rise again from the dead the third day; and that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name unto all nations, beginning from Jerusalem. Ye are witnesses of these things. And behold, I send forth the promise of my Father upon you; but tarry ye in the city, until ye be clothed with power from on high.” (Luke 24:46-49.) Notice what Jesus says had been written in the prophets—his death and resurrection, and that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name unto all nations, and that this preaching should begin from Jerusalem. So then, this world-wide evangelism, which was commanded by Christ and preached first by his apostles at Jerusalem, had been foretold by the prophets. And this began to be preached on Pentecost, the day the Holy Spirit filled them with power from on high. Here a plan of salvation was preached, and this plan had been foretold by the prophets. As only one plan was foretold by the prophets, they foretold no other plan than the one which began to be preached at Jerusalem. In his sermon on the day of Pentecost, Peter showed that Joel had prophesied of that day. He also quotes a prophecy of David, which he interprets to refer to the resurrection of Christ and his being seated on the throne of David, and then draws this conclusion: “Being therefore by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he hath poured forth this, which ye see and hear.” (Acts 2:33.) His argument was that Jesus had been raised up to sit on David’s throne, and he concludes that he had, therefore, been exalted. Yet Boll says: “To him, and to him exclusively, the throne of David belongs by every right. But that he is now already occupying that throne is precisely that which Peter does not say.” What, then, is the connection between Peter’s argument and his conclusion? Peter’s argument followed immediately by _therefore_ is significant. Can any one believe that Peter argued from David’s prophecy that Jesus had been raised up to sit on David’s throne, and conclude that he had _therefore_ been exalted to something else?