The Last Twelve Verses of the Gospel According to S. MarkBurgon, John William
Religion
The Last Twelve Verses of the Gospel According to S. Mark
Burgon, John William
Bible. Mark XVI, 9-20 -- Criticism, Textual
182 “On the whole,” says Bishop Middleton, (_Doctrine of the Greek Art._
p. 355) “I see nothing so probable as the opinion of Macknight (on
Col. iv. 16,)—‘that the Apostle sent the Ephesians word by Tychicus,
who carried their letter, to send a copy of it to the Laodiceans;
with an order to them to communicate it to the Colossians.’ ”—This
suggestion is intended to meet _another_ difficulty, and leaves the
question of the reading of Ephes. i. 1 untouched. It proposes only
to explain what S. Paul means by the enigmatical expression which is
found in Col. iv. 16.
Macknight’s suggestion, though it has found favour with many
subsequent Divines, appears to me improbable in a high degree. S.
Paul is found not to have sent _the Colossians_ “word by Tychicus,
who carried their letter, to send a copy of it to the Laodiceans.”
He charged them, himself, to do so. Why, at the same instant, is the
Apostle to be thought to have adopted two such different methods of
achieving one and the same important end? And why, instead of this
roundabout method of communication, were not _the Ephesians_
ordered,—if not by S. Paul himself, at least by Tychicus,—to send a
copy of their Epistle to Colosse direct? And why do we find the
Colossians charged to read publicly τὴν ἐκ Λαοδικείας, which (by the
hypothesis) would have been only a copy,—instead of τὴν ἐξ Ἐφέσου,
which, (by the same hypothesis,) would have been the original? Nay,
why is it not designated by S. Paul, τὴν πρὸς Ἐφεσίους,—(if indeed
it was his Epistle to the Ephesians which is alluded to,) instead of
τὴν ἐκ Λαοδικείας; which would hardly be an intelligible way of
indicating the document? Lastly, why are not the Colossians ordered
to communicate a copy of their Epistle to the illustrious Church of
the _Ephesians_ also, which had been originally addressed by S.
Paul? If the Colossians must needs read the Epistle (so like their
own) which the Apostle had just written to the Ephesians, surely the
Ephesians must also be supposed to have required a sight of the
Epistle which S. Paul had at the same time written to the
Colossians!
183 Epiphan. _Opp._ i. 311 D.
184 “Marcion exerte et palam machæra non stilo usus est, quoniam ad
materiam suam cædem Scripturarum confecit.” (Tertullian _Præscript.
Hær._ c. 38, p. 50.) “Non miror si syllabas subtrahit, cum paginas
totas plerumque subducat.” (_Adv. Marcion._ lib. v, c. xvii, p.
455.)
185 See above p. 95, and see note (f) p. 94.
186 See, by all means, Alford on this subject, vol. iii. _Prolegg._ pp.
13-15.
187 p. xiv.—See above, pp. 8, 9, note (f).
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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