The Relations between the Laws of Babylonia and the Laws of the Hebrew Peoples: The Schweich LecturesJohns, C. H. W. (Claude Hermann Walter)
History
The Relations between the Laws of Babylonia and the Laws of the Hebrew Peoples: The Schweich Lectures
Johns, C. H. W. (Claude Hermann Walter)
Jewish law; Law -- Iraq -- Babylonia
But there is no trace of such class distinctions in the Book of the
Covenant. It is not, therefore, a higher type of law. It would be lower
if it were purely aristocratic in the sense of love of retaliation. Why,
we may ask, were there no social grades in Israel? Possibly because in
proportion to the conquered the conquerors were relatively more numerous
than in Babylonia. Or possibly the conquered were more thoroughly
subdued. Possibly also because the references to class distinctions have
since been expurgated from our copies of the legislation.
Now let us take the view that the higher law which accepts compensation
for injury in place of strict retaliation emerged later in Israel. Are
we to regard this as a natural evolution? Surely not. We are not
convinced, surely, that it is a higher law or more inspired. It was
probably, as in Babylonia, already the older law of the land before the
Israelite invasion, the more civilized law of the more civilized
inhabitants of Canaan. Later, according to the critical arrangement of
the law codes as preserved to us in the Pentateuch, this more civilized
custom is growing, and it has to be forbidden in the interests of
conservatism (Leviticus xxiv. 22). At any rate, there, after repeating
the law of retaliation, differences of treatment are forbidden. Why
should this be done, unless they had been growing? Later still, in
Deuteronomy xix. 21, deviations from strict retaliation are again
forbidden with the words ‘thine eye shall not pity’. Once more, we may
ask, if compensation had not been a growing custom among the Israelites,
why should this effort be made to strengthen the observance of a lower
law? Was it solely because of their reverence for Moses and his law, or
was it not because it was all along the Canaanite law and so repugnant
to the Jewish lawyers? If so, were not the Canaanites in the same
position to the Israelites as the Babylonian _mushkênu_ to their Amorite
conquerors in the old days of Hammurabi?
The cases in the Book of the Covenant where an injury to a slave is
treated are not to be compared to those in the Code of Hammurabi. If a
slave is freed (Exodus xxi. 26) for a bad assault on him, it is an
assault by his master, for which Hammurabi has no notice. Hammurabi’s
cases of assault on a slave are by one who is not his master. There is
nothing here to show that the law was not exactly the same for both
legislations for the same cases. As far as our evidence goes one law
treats one case and omits the other, the other law treats the last case
and omits the first.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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