Collectivism; Economic history; Great Britain -- Economic policy; Industrial policy; Social history; Socialism
Obviously not. For the institution of Slavery presupposes a certain
attitude of mind in the free man and in the slave, a habit of living in
either, and the stamp of both those habits upon society. No such effects
are produced by a contract enforceable by the length of one week. The
duration of human life is such, and the prospect of posterity, that the
fulfilling of such a contract in no way wounds the senses of liberty and of
choice.
What of a month, a year, ten years, a lifetime? Suppose an extreme case,
and a destitute man to sign a contract binding him and all his children who
were minors to work for a bare subsistence until his own death, or the
attainment of majority of the children, whichever event might happen
latest; would the State in forcing that contract be making the man a slave?
As undoubtedly as it would not be making him a slave in the first case, it
would be making him a slave in the second.
One can only say to ancient sophistical difficulties of this kind, that the
sense of men establishes for itself the true limits of any object, as of
freedom. What freedom is, or is not, in so far as mere measure of time is
concerned (though of course much else than time enters in), human habit
determines; but the enforcing of a contract of service certainly or
probably leaving a choice after its expiration is consonant with freedom.
The enforcement of a contract probably binding one's whole life is not
consonant with freedom. One binding to service a man's natural heirs is
intolerable to freedom.
Consider another converse point. A man binds himself to work for life and
his children after him so far as the law may permit him to bind them in a
particular society, but that not for a bare subsistence, but for so large a
wage that he will be wealthy in a few years, and his posterity, when the
contract is completed, wealthier still. Does the State in forcing such a
contract make the fortunate employee a slave? No. For it is in the essence
of slavery that subsistence or little more than subsistence should be
guaranteed to the slave. Slavery exists in order that the Free should
benefit by its existence, and connotes a condition in which the men
subjected to it may demand secure existence, but little more.
If anyone were to draw an exact line, and to say that a life-contract
enforceable by law was slavery at so many shillings a week, but ceased to
be slavery after that margin, his effort would be folly. None the less,
there is a standard of subsistence in any one society, the guarantee of
which (or little more) under an obligation to labour by compulsion is
slavery, while the guarantee of very much more is not slavery.
This verbal jugglery might be continued. It is a type of verbal difficulty
apparent in every inquiry open to the professional disputant, but of no
effect upon the mind of the honest inquirer whose business is not dialectic
but truth.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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