From these authorities to which others might be added, we conclude that
slavery had no existence among the nations which arose immediately
after the flood. Noah, it seems was a good democrat, and gave
existence to institutions which secured the personal freedom of his
descendants; and absolutely prohibited their enslavement. And it also
appears that those institutions were for a long period observed, and
finally incorporated by Moses into the Law for the preservation of the
liberties of the Israelites. Now, Abraham was contemporary with the
sons of Noah, and was a governor of one of the very earliest nations
alluded to by the historians above quoted; hence it is clear, that
slavery had no existence in his day, and consequently he could not have
been a slaveholder.
Against this view it may be urged that slavery existed in Egypt in
the time of Joseph, that Joseph was sold as a slave, and that the
Israelites were slaves when in Egypt. To this objection we answer:
1. The assumption that slavery existed in Egypt in the time of the
patriarchs is without foundation. _Herodotus_, gives a "true and full"
account of the ancient Egyptians, specifies with great care the various
classes of men, but does not mention slaves. _Diodorus_, gives a
careful statement of the ancient Egyptian constitution, but is silent
respecting slavery.
_Rollin_ says: "Husbandmen, shepherds, and artificers formed the
three lower classes of lower life in Egypt, but were nevertheless had
in _very great esteem_, particularly husbandmen and shepherds." We
have the best of reasons, therefore, for believing that the wholesome
institutions of Noah were preserved for a long time in Egypt. That
a system of servitude existed in that country is true, but absolute
slavery was not permitted. Parents possessed great authority over their
children, and might sell them or their services, for a limited time,
but this was not slavery. A year of release was provided for all, so
that no one could, as Diodorus observes, "absolutely lose his freedom
and become a bondsman!"
2. Joseph was not a slave. He was doubtless sold as a servant for a
limited period, and evidently that period had expired before he arose
to the high station of Steward of Potipher's house.
3. The Israelites were not slaves in Egypt. They maintained their
nationality, preserved their family relations, owned property, and
were not distributed throughout the country, as chattel slaves are.
Their servitude was national. Their task masters were appointed by the
government, and they labored for the public benefit. They were not
domestic slaves.
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
Reviews
Reviews
No reviews yet
Be the first to share your thoughts on this work.
Join the Discussion
Join the discussion
Sign in to leave a comment or review.
Sign InorCreate an account