Civilization, Homeric; Epic poetry, Greek -- History and criticism; Homer; Homer -- Criticism and interpretation
On this point, then, that the Achaeans and Hellenes were more civilised
than the pre-existing "Pelasgians," the Greek thinkers were certainly
in the wrong. But what about language? Was Herodotus right in holding
that the "Pelasgians" spoke a "barbarous" language, and learned
Greek from the Hellenes? He admits that he could not speak with any
certainty about the language of the Pelasgians. But he infers from the
speech of actually contemporary Pelasgians, for example, at Creston in
Thrace, and at Placia and Scylace on the Hellespont, "and, in short,
of any other of the cities which have dropped the name, but are in
fact Pelasgian," that "the Pelasgians spoke a barbarous language"
(Herodotus, i. 56-58).
If so, unconquered Attica and unconquered mountainous Arcadia must
have spoken, in early times, "a barbarous language," and exchanged it
for the Hellenic, though with the Hellenes they were, according to
themselves, but slightly in contact. When we consider the pertinacity
of parts of Wales, Ireland, and the western Highlands in clinging to
Cymric and Gaelic, this theory of Herodotus seems highly improbable.
Mr. Ridgeway, on the other hand, holding that the Achaeans were "a
Celtic tribe" who passed from Epirus into Thessaly, concludes that
_their_ language was what the Hellenes of history would have called
"barbarous"; that they adopted the speech, Greek, of the Pelasgians
among whom they settled, and that the Homeric poems descend from
the lays of Pelasgian minstrels, who sang in Greek of the exploits
of Achaeans who were Celtic, but became merged in a Greek-speaking
Pelasgic population (_Early Age of Greece_, vol. i. p. 648). If so,
the minstrels had entirely absorbed the non-Pelasgian customs and
ideas, absence of ghosts, and hero-worship, of pollution, and ritual
purification, and human sacrifice, and the professed Olympian religion
of their Achaean lords.
To the objection that, if Homer's poetic Pelasgian predecessors had the
good Greek, no Pelasgians known to Herodotus spoke it, Mr. Ridgeway
can reply that "the Greeks considered Phrygians and Thracians to be
barbarous, though both spoke languages akin to Greek; so that, although
Herodotus thought the languages of Scylace and Placia" (and of _all_
cities which were, in fact, Pelasgian) "barbarous, this does not prove
that it was not closely cognate to Greek" (_Early Age of Greece_, vol.
i. p. 146).
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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