Civilization, Homeric; Epic poetry, Greek -- History and criticism; Homer; Homer -- Criticism and interpretation
Yes, but why had the language of the Pelasgian minstrels of the Achaean
lords, which was excellent Greek, become in the time of Herodotus
the language which, to him, was barbarous? I understand Mr. Ridgeway
to answer this question by saying that "there is no difficulty in
supposing that certain Pelasgians long settled in Etruria, whither they
had come from Thessaly, may have again emigrated" (out of Etruria)
"from some external or internal cause, and settled in various spots
around the Aegean, some of them going to Athens, and later to Lemnos."
See Herodotus, ii. 50, 51, for Pelasgians who, when the Athenians "were
just beginning to count as Hellenes," settled for a while in Attica.
For this fact Herodotus cites Hecataeus. These new-come Pelasgians were
unruly, and were banished to Lemnos (Hdt. vi. 137). They later came
back to raid Brauron in Attica (Hdt. vi. 138). Let these much-wandering
Pelasgians return to Thrace, or, at least, let the Pelasgians whom
Herodotus knew in Thrace (and all Pelasgians wherever he knew them)
have strolled from Thessaly to Etruria in Italy, and back again to the
Aegean, and north to Thrace, and it is certain that their original
language, Greek (like _jour_ as derived from _dies_), must have been
_diablement changé en route_, and quite unrecognisable as Greek by
Herodotus (see Ridgeway, vol. i. pp. 144-146, and p. 244; also "Who
were the Romans?" _Proceedings of the British Academy_, vol. iii.).
On the whole Pelasgian question, the most valuable analysis of the
evidence, such as it is, appears to me to be that of Mr. Myres in the
_Journal of the Hellenic Society_, vol. xxvii.
My only conclusion is that, whoever the Achaeans may have been, and
whatever their language, and whoever the pre-existing population may
have been, and whatever their language, the Achaeans imported a new,
lofty, and _brief-lived_ set of ideas, customs, a new tone and taste.
At the same time, Mr. Ridgeway's arguments in favour of his theory
that the pre-Achaean population of Greece spoke Greek, have my assent
for what it is worth, though I do not think that the evidence for the
hypothesis of Dionysius of Halicarnassus that Thessalian Pelasgians
went to Etruria, and that their descendants came back to the Aegean,
has valid historical evidence.
[1] _Pausanias_, vii. i. 11.
[2] "Athenians and Achaean traditions."
[3] Hdt. v. 57, 58, 61. The Cadmeians, till very recently, were
regarded as Phoenicians, Semites. Now the name "Phoenicians" ("red
men") is understood to mean men of the old Aegean race, and no traces
of Semitic import have been discovered in the soil of Boeotia. Thebes
itself was "Minoan," not Semitic. Evans, _Scripta Minoa,_ vol. i.
[4] Iliad, ii. 571, and Leaf's note, ii. 560. Hdt. i. 145.
[5] Thucydides, i. 2.
[6] _R, G. E_. 50-57.
[7] Hogarth. _Ionia and the East_, p. 12.
[8] Hogarth, p. 34.
[9] _Ibid._ pp. 34-36.
[10] Chipiez et Perrot, _La Grèce de l'Epopée_, pp. 235-246.
[11] Hogarth, p. 104.
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