On the other hand, certainly there were legal restrictions for Hitler under international law. He, as the head of the State, was the representative of the German Reich with foreign countries. After the development of affairs, he had to represent the German Reich without the restrictions which the Reich President still had. Hitler alone concluded the treaties and terminated them. He alone concluded alliances and could renounce them. He was bound by international law. Therefore, he could commit acts violating international law. He could issue orders violating international law to the Germans. Now we are confronted with the most difficult problem: What were the consequences of the violation of international law by an act or an instruction by Hitler? The nonjurists will probably say that the order did not exist. But every jurist knows everywhere in the world that matters for the state, for every state, are not so simple. It is not true that there is even one state in the world which would say, “Every wrong act of state is not an act of state at all,” but every government system had inherent in itself, in varying form, a second order so to speak--a kind of self-purification system--a system concerned with finding out whether faulty acts of state are void or valid or are only partly valid. Every state commits faulty acts--acts of which everybody knows that they are not in order and knows it at a certain time. Acts which all the same are maintained, merely because during a legal procedure the end has to come one day. In the Germany of the Weimar republic, for example, this is what happened. When the Reichstag--I just showed it by the example of Anschuetz--had passed a bill pursuant to article 76, that is, with a majority which could change the constitution, that law, if it had been properly promulgated, was binding for every official agency, even, for example, if it did not comply with an obligation of the Reich under international law.