In this commentary--would you kindly wait a moment--it’s a long time since I looked at it last, but I think I can remember where it is. [Reading] Anschuetz says in his commentary on article 10, under figure 7, “International law too, places an obligation on the German judge within the meaning of article 102 and according to article 4, but only insofar as it is generally recognized; in particular, also recognized by the German Reich and does not contradict the Reich laws. Whether that is the case, that the judge has to examine but he does not have to examine Reich laws, for the fact whether they are or are not in accordance with international law, and even if they don’t pass this examination, he cannot deny their application.” That means if the Reichstag, let us say, with a majority that can change the constitution had passed a law which was contradicting international law, that law was binding for all German official agencies. The Reich had to act as a sovereign State under the international law governing offenses against international law. I return to Hitler. What applied to the democratic set-up applied all the more to the set-up under a “leader,” and everybody knows that who knew about the conditions surrounding Hitler’s decisions. If Hitler issued an order which was faulty from the legal point of view, that did not give the German official agencies any reason to refuse obedience, for in every state there has to be an authority beyond whom there is no appeal. In the case of Hitler something else, something special applies. He who sees things differently and believes that the German official agencies were not merely entitled but perhaps even under an obligation to examine Hitler’s orders as to their legality not from the scientific point of view, but merely with the practical purpose of possibly refusing obedience, claims no more, no less than that Germany had no dictatorship at all. Then it would not be comprehensible what was the sense of a fight of the whole world against that regime.